57. (2007.01.29) Proof: We will prove a stronger form of the inequality:
∑a2+bca(b+c)⩾2+∏(a2+bc)8a2b2c2
When one of a,b,c is zero, assume without loss of generality that c=0, then inequality (1) becomes
ab+ba⩾2
which is clearly true.
When a,b,c are all non-zero, let ab=x,bc=y,ca=z,x,y,z∈R−,xyz=1, then inequality (1) becomes
∑y+z1+yz⩾2+∏(y+z)8⇔∑(1+yz)(x+y)(x+z)⩾2∏(y+z)+8⇔∑x2+3∑yz+∑x+(∑yz)2⩾2∑x⋅∑yz+6⇔(∑x)2+(∑yz)2+∑(yz+x)⩾2∑x⋅∑yz+6
Since
so
and
xyz=1∑(yz+x)⩾6(∑x)2+(∑yz)2⩾2∑x⋅∑yz
Therefore, inequality (3) holds, which means inequality (2) holds, and thus inequality (1) is proved.