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Number theory Difficulty 5.9 AIME, harder Prove it

(Bulgaria 1987). Let k>1k>1 be an integer. Prove that there exists a prime number pp and a strictly increasing sequence of integers (an)n>1\left(a_{n}\right)_{n>1} such that the sequence (p+kan)n>1\left(p+k a_{n}\right)_{n>1} consists entirely of prime numbers.

Solution

. For all i{1,,k1}i \in\{1, \ldots, k-1\}, we denote by Pi\mathscr{P}_{i} the set of prime numbers congruent to ii modulo kk. Since there are infinitely many prime numbers and at most one is divisible by kk, the pigeonhole principle ensures that one of these sets, say Pr\mathscr{P}_{r}, is infinite. Let (xj)j0\left(x_{j}\right)_{j \geqslant 0} be the sequence of elements of Pr\mathscr{P}_{r} arranged in increasing order. For all integers j1j \geqslant 1, we have xj=x0mod[k]x_{j}=x_{0} \bmod [k] so the number aj=xjx0ka_{j}=\frac{x_{j}-x_{0}}{k} is a strictly positive integer. The strict increase of the sequence (aj)j>1\left(a_{j}\right)_{j>1} follows from that of (xj)j1\left(x_{j}\right)_{j \geqslant 1}.

We then set p=x0p=x_{0}. Since, for all n1n \geqslant 1, we have p+kan=xnp+k a_{n}=x_{n}, this concludes.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.