First, if the conclusion holds, then it must be that m>n (why). By the division algorithm for polynomials, there exist integer-coefficient polynomials q(x) and r(x) (with degree less than n), such that
xm+x−1=q(x)(xn+x2−1)+r(x).
If there are infinitely many positive integers a, such that when x=a, (xm+x−1)/ (xn+x2−1) takes integer values, then by equation (1), for these infinitely many positive integers a, when x=a, r(x)/(xn+x2−1) also takes integer values. Since the degree of r(x) is less than n, unless r(x) is identically zero, this is impossible (why). Therefore, a necessary condition for the conclusion to hold is that r(x) is identically zero, i.e., the polynomial xn+x2−1 divides xm+x−1.
Thus, setting m=n+k,k⩾1, we obtain: A necessary condition for the conclusion to hold is that there is an integer-coefficient polynomial with leading coefficient 1 (why)
q(x)=(xk+ck−1xk−1+ck−2xk−2+⋯+c2x2+c1x+1)
such that
xn+k+x−1=(xk+ck−1xk−1+ck−2xk−2+⋯+c2x2+c1x+1)(xn+x2−1)
We simplify the above equation. Subtracting xk(xn+x2−1) from both sides of the equation, we get
−(x−1)(xk+1+xk−1)=−xk+2+xk+x−1=(ck−1xk−1+ck−2xk−2+⋯+c2x2+c1x+1)(xn+x2−1)
When x=1, xn+x2−1=1, so by equation (3) we know
ck−1xk−1+ck−2xk−2+⋯+c2x2+c1x+1=0
Therefore, the integer-coefficient polynomial ck−1xk−1+ck−2xk−2+⋯+c2x2+c1x+1 is divisible by x−1 (why). We set
ck−1xk−1+ck−2xk−2+⋯+c2x2+c1x+1=−(x−1)h(x),
where the integer-coefficient polynomial h(x) is
h(x)=blxl+bl−1xl−1+⋯+b1x+1,bl=0,l⩾0.
Combining the above discussions, we get
(xk+1+xk−1)=(blxl+bl−1xl−1+⋯+b1x+1)(xn+x2−1).
Comparing the coefficients on both sides of the equation, we get
k+1=l+n,bl=1,l⩾0
Since n⩾3, it must be that k⩾2. If k=2, by equation (6) we immediately get
l=0,n=3,m=5
Correspondingly, we have
x5+x−1=(x3+x2−1)(x2−x+1)
Next, we prove that equation (7) is the unique solution, i.e., it is impossible to have k>2. We use proof by contradiction. If k>2, let f(x)=xn+x2−1. Polynomials are continuous functions, and note that
f(0)=−1,f(1)=1
By the intermediate value theorem for continuous functions, there must be a real number α(0<α<1) such that
f(α)=0
If k>2, then α2>αk (why). From the above two inequalities, we get
αk+1>αn,k+1<n
This contradicts equation (6). Proof complete.