Example 1.17.10. Let a1,a2,…,an be non-negative real numbers. Prove that (n−1)(a1n+a2n+…+ann)+na1a2…an≥(a1+a2+…+an)(a1n−1+a2n−1+…+ann−1)
Solution
SOLUTION. We will prove first the following result for all real numbers x1,x2,…,xn n(n−1)i=1∑n∣xi∣+n∣S∣≥i,j=1∑n∣xi+(n−1)xj∣ where S=x1+x2+…+xn. Indeed, let zi=∣xi∣∀i∈{1,2,…,n} and A={i∣1≤i≤n,i∈N,xi≥0},B={i∣1≤i≤n,i∈N,xi<0}. WLOG, we may assume that A={1,2,…,k} and B={k+1,k+2,…,n}, then ∣A∣=k,∣B∣=n−k=m and zi≥0 for all i∈A∪B. The inequality above becomes n(n−1)(∑i∈Azi+∑j∈Bzj)+n∑i∈Azi−∑j∈Bzj≥∑i,i′∈A∣zi+(n−1)zi′∣+∑j,j′∈B∣zj+zj′∣+∑i∈A,j∈B(∣zi−(n−1)zj∣+∣(n−1)zi−zj∣)
Because n=k+m, the previous inequality is equivalent to ≥n(m−1)i∈A∑zi+n(k−1)j∈B∑zj+ni∈A∑zi−j∈B∑zji∈A,j∈B∑∣zi−(n−1)zj∣+i∈A,j∈B∑∣(n−1)zi−zj∣
For each i∈A we denote Bi={j∈B∣(n−1)zi≥zj};Bi′={j∈B∣zi≥(n−1)zj}
For each j∈B we denote Aj={i∈A∣(n−1)zj≥zi};Aj′={i∈A∣zj≥(n−1)zi}
We have of course Bi′⊂Bi⊂B and Ai′⊂Ai⊂A. After giving up the absolute value signs, the right-hand side expression of (⋆) is indeed equal to i∈A∑(mn−2∣Bi′∣−2(n−1)∣Bi∣)zi+j∈B∑(kn−2Aj′−2(n−1)∣Aj∣)zj
WLOG, we may assume that ∑i∈Azi≥∑j∈Bzj. The inequality above becomes i∈A∑(∣Bi′∣+(n−1)∣Bi∣)zi+j∈B∑(Aj′+(n−1)∣Aj∣−n)zj≥0
Notice that if for all j∈B, we have Aj′≥1, then the conclusion follows immediately (because Aj′⊂Aj, then ∣Aj∣≥1 and Aj′+(n−1)∣Aj∣−n≥0∀j∈B ). If not, we may assume that there exists a certain number r∈B for which ∣Ar′∣=0, and therefore ∣Ar∣=0. Because ∣Ar∣=0, it follows that (n−1)zr≤zi for all i∈A. This implies that ∣Bi∣≥∣Bi′∣≥1 for all i∈A, therefore ∣Bi′∣+(n−1)∣Bi∣≥n and we conclude that i∈A∑(∣Bi′∣+(n−1)∣Bi∣)zi+j∈B∑(Aj′+(n−1)∣Aj∣−n)zj≥ni∈A∑zi−nj∈B∑zj≥0
Therefore (1) has been successfully proved and therefore Suranji's inequality follows immediately from Karamata inequality and the Symmetric Majorization Criterion.
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