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Combinatorics Difficulty 7.8 National olympiad, round 2 Find the answer

Does there exist a function s ⁣:Q{1,1}s\colon \mathbb{Q} \rightarrow \{-1,1\} such that if xx and yy are distinct rational numbers satisfying xy=1{xy=1} or x+y{0,1}{x+y\in \{0,1\}}, then s(x)s(y)=1{s(x)s(y)=-1}? Justify your answer.

[i]

A number or a short expression. Spacing and $ signs are ignored.

Solution

We are given the problem of determining whether there exists a function s:Q{1,1} s: \mathbb{Q} \to \{-1, 1\} such that for any two distinct rational numbers x x and y y , if they satisfy xy=1 xy = 1 or x+y{0,1} x + y \in \{0, 1\} , then s(x)s(y)=1 s(x)s(y) = -1 .

To solve this problem, we can explore the definitions and properties of the conditions given:

1. Condition 1: xy=1 xy = 1 .

This implies y=1x y = \frac{1}{x} . The function s s should satisfy s(x)s(1x)=1 s(x)s\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = -1 . Hence, if s(x)=1 s(x) = 1 , then s(1x)=1 s\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = -1 and vice versa.

2. Condition 2: x+y{0,1} x+y \in \{0, 1\} .

For x+y=0 x + y = 0 , we have y=x y = -x . Therefore, s(x)s(x)=1 s(x)s(-x) = -1 . If s(x)=1 s(x) = 1 , then s(x)=1 s(-x) = -1 and vice versa.

For x+y=1 x + y = 1 , we have y=1x y = 1 - x . Thus, s(x)s(1x)=1 s(x)s(1-x) = -1 . If s(x)=1 s(x) = 1 , then s(1x)=1 s(1-x) = -1 and vice versa.

We need to construct such a function s s . We will proceed with a specific construction to show such a function exists.

### Function Construction

Define s s as follows:

- s(x)=1 s(x) = 1 if x x is a positive rational number that can be expressed in the form pq \frac{p}{q} where p p and q q are positive integers, and pq p \leq q .
- s(x)=1 s(x) = -1 if x x is a positive rational number that can be expressed in the form pq \frac{p}{q} where p p and q q are positive integers, and p>q p > q .
- For negative rational numbers, define s(x)=s(x) s(x) = -s(-x) .
- Define s(0)=1 s(0) = 1 .
- Define s(1)=1 s(1) = -1 .

### Verification

Let's verify that this function satisfies the conditions.

1. **For xy=1 xy = 1 :**

If x=pq x = \frac{p}{q} , then y=qp y = \frac{q}{p} . Whether x x or y y has pq p \leq q or p>q p > q , the definition ensures that s(x)s(y)=1 s(x)s(y) = -1 .

2. **For x+y=0 x + y = 0 :**

Here, y=x y = -x . Clearly by definition s(x)s(x)=1 s(x)s(-x) = -1 .

3. **For x+y=1 x + y = 1 :**

Consider y=1x y = 1-x . Again, whether x1x x \leq 1-x or x>1x x > 1-x , we find s(x)s(1x)=1 s(x)s(1-x) = -1 due to the definition.

With this construction, we conclude that such a function s s does indeed exist that satisfies the conditions for the given problem. Therefore, the answer is:
Yes \boxed{\text{Yes}}

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Source: Omni-MATH, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.