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Algebra Difficulty 8.1 Shortlist Find the answer

Let n2n \geq 2 be an integer. Find all real numbers aa such that there exist real numbers x1x_{1}, ,xn\ldots, x_{n} satisfying x1(1x2)=x2(1x3)==xn1(1xn)=xn(1x1)=ax_{1}\left(1-x_{2}\right)=x_{2}\left(1-x_{3}\right)=\ldots=x_{n-1}\left(1-x_{n}\right)=x_{n}\left(1-x_{1}\right)=a

A number or a short expression. Spacing and $ signs are ignored.

Solution

Throughout the solution we will use the notation xn+1=x1x_{n+1}=x_{1}. We prove that the set of possible values of aa is (,14]{14cos2kπn;kN,1k<n2}\left(-\infty, \frac{1}{4}\right] \bigcup\left\{\frac{1}{4 \cos ^{2} \frac{k \pi}{n}} ; k \in \mathbb{N}, 1 \leq k<\frac{n}{2}\right\} In the case a14a \leq \frac{1}{4} we can choose x1x_{1} such that x1(1x1)=ax_{1}\left(1-x_{1}\right)=a and set x1=x2==xnx_{1}=x_{2}=\ldots=x_{n}. Hence we will now suppose that a>14a>\frac{1}{4}. The system gives the recurrence formula xi+1=φ(xi)=1axi=xiaxi,i=1,,nx_{i+1}=\varphi\left(x_{i}\right)=1-\frac{a}{x_{i}}=\frac{x_{i}-a}{x_{i}}, \quad i=1, \ldots, n The fractional linear transform φ\varphi can be interpreted as a projective transform of the real projective line R{}\mathbb{R} \cup\{\infty\}; the map φ\varphi is an element of the group PGL2(R)\operatorname{PGL}_{2}(\mathbb{R}), represented by the linear transform M=(1a10)M=\left(\begin{array}{cc}1 & -a \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right). (Note that detM0\operatorname{det} M \neq 0 since a0a \neq 0.) The transform φn\varphi^{n} can be represented by MnM^{n}. A point [u,v][u, v] (written in homogenous coordinates) is a fixed point of this transform if and only if (u,v)T(u, v)^{T} is an eigenvector of MnM^{n}. Since the entries of MnM^{n} and the coordinates u,vu, v are real, the corresponding eigenvalue is real, too. The characteristic polynomial of MM is x2x+ax^{2}-x+a, which has no real root for a>14a>\frac{1}{4}. So MM has two conjugate complex eigenvalues λ1.2=12(1±4a1i)\lambda_{1.2}=\frac{1}{2}(1 \pm \sqrt{4 a-1} i). The eigenvalues of MnM^{n} are λ1,2n\lambda_{1,2}^{n}, they are real if and only if argλ1,2=±kπn\arg \lambda_{1,2}= \pm \frac{k \pi}{n} with some integer kk; this is equivalent with ±4a1=tankπn\pm \sqrt{4 a-1}=\tan \frac{k \pi}{n} a=14(1+tan2kπn)=14cos2kπna=\frac{1}{4}\left(1+\tan ^{2} \frac{k \pi}{n}\right)=\frac{1}{4 \cos ^{2} \frac{k \pi}{n}} If argλ1=kπn\arg \lambda_{1}=\frac{k \pi}{n} then λ1n=λ2n\lambda_{1}^{n}=\lambda_{2}^{n}, so the eigenvalues of MnM^{n} are equal. The eigenvalues of MM are distinct, so MM and MnM^{n} have two linearly independent eigenvectors. Hence, MnM^{n} is a multiple of the identity. This means that the projective transform φn\varphi^{n} is the identity; starting from an arbitrary point x1R{}x_{1} \in \mathbb{R} \cup\{\infty\}, the cycle x1,x2,,xnx_{1}, x_{2}, \ldots, x_{n} closes at xn+1=x1x_{n+1}=x_{1}. There are only finitely many cycles x1,x2,,xnx_{1}, x_{2}, \ldots, x_{n} containing the point \infty; all other cycles are solutions for the system.

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