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Geometry Difficulty 6.0 National olympiad Find the answer

Let P1P2PnP_{1} P_{2} \cdots P_{n} be a regular nn-gon in the plane and a1,,ana_{1}, \ldots, a_{n} be nonnegative integers. It is possible to draw mm circles so that for each 1in1 \leq i \leq n, there are exactly aia_{i} circles that contain PiP_{i} on their interior. Find, with proof, the minimum possible value of mm in terms of the aia_{i}.

A number or a short expression. Spacing and $ signs are ignored.

Solution

For convenience, we take all indices modulo nn. Let [n][n] be the set {1,2,,n}\{1,2, \ldots, n\}. Also, let M=max(a1,,an),d=12iaiai+1M=\max \left(a_{1}, \ldots, a_{n}\right), d=\frac{1}{2} \sum_{i}\left|a_{i}-a_{i+1}\right|, and M=max(M,d)M^{\prime}=\max (M, d). We claim that MM^{\prime} is the answer. Let Ω\Omega be the circumcircle of the polygon. First let's prove that mMm \geq M^{\prime}. Obviously mMm \geq M. Also, there must be at least aiai+1\left|a_{i}-a_{i+1}\right| circles crossing Ω\Omega between PiP_{i} and Pi+1P_{i+1}, and a circle can cross Ω\Omega at most twice. Thus mdm \geq d. We will present two ways to arrive at a construction. Inductive construction. We use induction on iai\sum_{i} a_{i}. If all the aia_{i} are zero, then the problem is trivial. Now assume that not all the aia_{i} are zero the idea is that we are going to subtract 1 from a consecutive subset of the aia_{i} so that the value of MM^{\prime} goes down by 1. There are two cases. First of all, if ai=0a_{i}=0 for some ii, then we can choose such an ii so that ai+1>0a_{i+1}>0. Then, let jj be the minimal positive integer so that ai+j=0a_{i+j}=0. Then subtract 1 from ai+1,,ai+j1a_{i+1}, \ldots, a_{i+j-1}. It is clear that dd decreases by 1. If ai+j=ai+j+1==ai=0a_{i+j}=a_{i+j+1}=\cdots=a_{i}=0, then MM also goes down by 1. If not, then M<dM<d, so MM^{\prime} goes down by 1 anyway. The second case is when ai>0a_{i}>0 for all ii. If all the aia_{i} are the same then we are done by subtracting 1 from everything. If not, we can find i,ji, j with j>i+1j>i+1 so that ai=M,aj=Ma_{i}=M, a_{j}=M, and ai+1,ai+2,,aj1<Ma_{i+1}, a_{i+2}, \ldots, a_{j-1}<M. Then subtract 1 from the complement of aj,aj+1,,ai1a_{j}, a_{j+1}, \ldots, a_{i-1}. Then MM goes down by 1 and dd goes down by 1. Non-inductive construction. We will prove that if MdM \leq d, then we may choose m=dm=d. If M>dM>d, then since dMmin(a1,,an)d \geq M-\min \left(a_{1}, \ldots, a_{n}\right) we can subtract MdM-d from every aia_{i}, draw MdM-d circles containing every point, and apply the below construction. Let ai=aiminj(aj),Ah={iai<h,ai+1h},Bh={iaih,ai+1<h}a_{i}^{\prime}=a_{i}-\min _{j}\left(a_{j}\right), A_{h}=\left\{i \mid a_{i}^{\prime}<h, a_{i+1}^{\prime} \geq h\right\}, B_{h}=\left\{i \mid a_{i}^{\prime} \geq h, a_{i+1}^{\prime}<h\right\}. Also, let sh=Ah=Bhs_{h}=\left|A_{h}\right|=\left|B_{h}\right|. Note that d=hshd=\sum_{h} s_{h} and that sh>0hmax(ai)s_{h}>0 \Longrightarrow h \leq \max \left(a_{i}^{\prime}\right). For hmax(ai)h \leq \max \left(a_{i}^{\prime}\right) and 1jsh1 \leq j \leq s_{h}, define an arrangement of circles Ch(j)C_{h}^{(j)} as follows: let the elements of AhA_{h} and BhB_{h} be a1,b1,a2,b2,a_{1}, b_{1}, a_{2}, b_{2}, \ldots in order. Then for each ishi \leq s_{h} add a circle covering the points in the interval (ai,bi+j\left(a_{i}, b_{i+j}\right. ]. One can show that point PiP_{i} is covered by circles jj times if aiha_{i}^{\prime} \geq h and j1j-1 times otherwise. Now, for some choice of jhj_{h} for all hh, consider taking hCh(jh)\bigcup_{h} C_{h}^{\left(j_{h}\right)}. Then, PiP_{i} is covered by circles hjh+aiM\sum_{h} j_{h}+a_{i}-M times. If we choose the jhj_{h} so that hjh=M\sum_{h} j_{h}=M, which can be shown to be possible, we are done.

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Source: Omni-MATH, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.