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HMMT February

Algebra Difficulty 6.5 National Olympiad Find the answer

Across all polynomials PP such that P(n)P(n) is an integer for all integers nn, determine, with proof, all possible values of P(i)P(i), where i2=−1i^{2}=-1.

A number or a short expression. Fractions can be typed as 3/2, and spacing doesn't matter.

Solution

We claim the answer is every complex number a+bia+b i where aa and bb are rationals whose simplified denominators are not multiples of any prime congruent to 1 modulo 4 . The proof consists of two main steps: proving that powers of p≡1 mod 4p \equiv 1 \bmod 4 can't appear in the denominator, and showing all possible values are attainable. We show three different methods of the former part. * Impossibility\text{* Impossibility} via elementary number theory} We first show that no other values are possible. Indeed, it is well known that any polynomial that maps Z\mathbb{Z} into itself must be of the form P(n)=∑k=0mak(nk)P(n)=\sum_{k=0}^{m} a_{k}\binom{n}{k} for integers aka_{k} and where we treat the binomials as formal polynomials. This may be proved via finite differences. It is therefore sufficient to show that for any k,(ik)k,\binom{i}{k} can be simplified to a fraction of the form a+bic\frac{a+b i}{c}, where a,b,ca, b, c are integers and cc is not divisible by any prime that is 1 modulo 4 . We have that (ik)=i⋅(i−1)⋅…⋅(i−(k−1))k⋅(k−1)⋅…⋅1 \binom{i}{k}=\frac{i \cdot(i-1) \cdot \ldots \cdot(i-(k-1))}{k \cdot(k-1) \cdot \ldots \cdot 1} Pick any prime pp that is 1 modulo 4 . Since pp is 1 modulo 4 , there exist distinct residue classes xx, yy modulo pp so that x2≡y2≡−1 mod px^{2} \equiv y^{2} \equiv-1 \bmod p. We will show that for every integer, r≤kr \leq k divisible by pp in the denominator, we can pair it with a disjoint set, {rx,ry}\left\{r_{x}, r_{y}\right\}, of two positive integers less than kk in these two residue classes so that (i−rx)(i−ry)\left(i-r_{x}\right)\left(i-r_{y}\right) has real and complex parts divisible by the highest power of pp dividing rr. Thus any factor of pp that is 1 modulo 4 in the denominator, exists in the numerator as well, which suffices. Start with u=1u=1 and repeat the following process for increasing uu until there is nothing left to do. For every positive integer j≤kj \leq k such that pu∣jp^{u} \mid j, there exist unique jx′,jy′∈[j−pu,j)j_{x}^{\prime}, j_{y}^{\prime} \in\left[j-p^{u}, j\right) satisfying jx′≡x mod p,jy′≡y mod pj_{x}^{\prime} \equiv x \bmod p, j_{y}^{\prime} \equiv y \bmod p and pu∣jx′2+1,jy′2+1p^{u} \mid j_{x}^{\prime}{ }^{2}+1, j_{y}^{\prime}{ }^{2}+1. So pair jj with the set {jx′,jy′}\left\{j_{x}^{\prime}, j_{y}^{\prime}\right\}, and pair its old partners if any to the old partners of jx′j_{x}^{\prime} and jy′j_{y}^{\prime}. The important feature of this assignment process is that we always have at step u,pmin⁡(u,vp(r))∣rx+u, p^{\min \left(u, v_{p}(r)\right)} \mid r_{x}+ ry,rx2+1,ry2+1r_{y}, r_{x}^{2}+1, r_{y}^{2}+1. Thus at the end of the process, (i−rx)(i−ry)=12((rx+ry)2−(rx2+1)−(ry2+1))−\left(i-r_{x}\right)\left(i-r_{y}\right)=\frac{1}{2}\left(\left(r_{x}+r_{y}\right)^{2}-\left(r_{x}^{2}+1\right)-\left(r_{y}^{2}+1\right)\right)- (rx+ry)i\left(r_{x}+r_{y}\right) i has real and complex parts divisible by pvp(r)p^{v_{p}(r)} as claimed. * Impossibility\text{* Impossibility} via Gaussian Integers} We work in the ring of Gaussian Integers Z∗={a+bi:a,b∈Z}\mathbb{Z}*=\{a+b i: a, b \in \mathbb{Z}\}, which is sitting inside number field Q∗={a+bi:a,b∈Q}\mathbb{Q}*=\{a+b i: a, b \in \mathbb{Q}\}. It's well-known that Z∗\mathbb{Z}* is a unique factorization domain. For any Gaussian prime π\pi, let νpi(z)\nu_{p i}(z) denote the exponent of π\pi in the factorization of zz. Let p≡1( mod 4)p \equiv 1(\bmod 4) be a prime. It's well known that pp splits into two Gaussian primes, p=ππˉp=\pi \bar{\pi}. Note that it suffices to show νπ(i(i−1)(i−2)…(i−k+1))≥νπ(k!)=⌊kp⌋+⌊kp2⌋+… \begin{equation*} \nu_{\pi}(i(i-1)(i-2) \ldots(i-k+1)) \geq \nu_{\pi}(k!)=\left\lfloor\frac{k}{p}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{k}{p^{2}}\right\rfloor+\ldots \tag{*} \end{equation*} because the similar statement for πˉ\bar{\pi} will follow. The key claim is the following: Claim. For any integer t≥1t \geq 1 and nn, at least one of numbers i−n−1,i−n−2,…,i−n−pti-n-1, i-n-2, \ldots, i-n-p^{t} is divisible by πt\pi^{t}. Proof. First, we show that there exists integer rr such that πt∣i−r\pi^{t} \mid i-r. To that end, by Hensel's lemma, there exists an integer ss for which pt∣s2+1p^{t} \mid s^{2}+1. Thus, πtπˉt∣(s−i)(s+i) \pi^{t} \bar{\pi}^{t} \mid(s-i)(s+i) However, gcd⁡(s−i,s+i)∣2\operatorname{gcd}(s-i, s+i) \mid 2, so πt\pi^{t} must divide either s−is-i or s+is+i. In particular, r=sr=s or r=−sr=-s work. To complete the problem, pick the unique x∈{1,2,…,pt}x \in\left\{1,2, \ldots, p^{t}\right\} such that n+x≡r( mod p)tn+x \equiv r(\bmod p)^{t}, so i−(n+x)≡i-(n+x) \equiv i−r( mod pt)i-r\left(\bmod p^{t}\right) and hence divisible by πt\pi^{t}. Using the claim repeatedly, we find that among numbers i,i−1,i−2,…,i−k+1i, i-1, i-2, \ldots, i-k+1, - at least ⌊kp⌋\left\lfloor\frac{k}{p}\right\rfloor are divisible by π\pi (this is by selecting ⌊kp⌋\left\lfloor\frac{k}{p}\right\rfloor disjoint contiguous block of size pp ), - at least ⌊kp2⌋\left\lfloor\frac{k}{p^{2}}\right\rfloor are divisible by π2\pi^{2}, - at least ⌊kp3⌋\left\lfloor\frac{k}{p^{3}}\right\rfloor are divisible by π3\pi^{3}, ・ ⋮\quad \vdots Using these altogether suffices to prove (∗)(*). * Impossibility\text{* Impossibility} via p\boldsymbol{p}-adics} Let P(i)=a+biP(i)=a+b i, and note that P(−i)=a−biP(-i)=a-b i. Fix some p≡1 mod 4p \equiv 1 \bmod 4, and consider the pp-adic integers Zp\mathbb{Z}_{p} lying in Qp\mathbb{Q}_{p}. Note that x2+1=0x^{2}+1=0 has a solution in Zp\mathbb{Z}_{p}, and hence ±i∈Zp\pm i \in \mathbb{Z}_{p}. Now take a sequence of integers mkm_{k} converging to ii in Zp\mathbb{Z}_{p}, so −mk-m_{k} converges to −i-i. Then since polynomials are continuous, P(mk)P\left(m_{k}\right) converges to P(i)P(i) and P(−mk)P\left(-m_{k}\right) converges to P(−i)P(-i), so P(mk)+P(−mk)P\left(m_{k}\right)+P\left(-m_{k}\right) and P(mk)−P(−mk)P\left(m_{k}\right)-P\left(-m_{k}\right) converge to 2x2 x and 2yi2 y i respectively. Finally, since P(mk)P\left(m_{k}\right) and P(−mk)P\left(-m_{k}\right) are integers, they have nonnegative pp-adic valuation, and so by continuity, 2x2 x and 2y2 y have nonegative pp-adic valuation. Thus, when written as simplified fractions, aa and bb cannot have any powers of pp in their denominator, as desired. * Construction\text{* Construction} We now show that all of the claimed values are possible. The set of polynomials, PP, taking Z\mathbb{Z} to itself is closed under addition and multiplication, and therefore so is the set of possible values of P(i)P(i). It clearly contains Z∗\mathbb{Z}* by taking linear polynomials. Thus it suffices to show that p−1p^{-1} is attainable for every prime pp that is not 1 modulo 4. 2−12^{-1} is achieved by taking P(x)=14x(x−1)(x−2)(x−3)+3P(x)=\frac{1}{4} x(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)+3, so we may focus our attention only on the case where pp is 3 modulo 4 . It is then further sufficient to show that some (a+bi)p−1(a+b i) p^{-1} is attainable for a,b∈Za, b \in \mathbb{Z} not both divisible by pp because then (a−bi)⋅(a+bi)p−1=(a2+b2)p−1(a-b i) \cdot(a+b i) p^{-1}=\left(a^{2}+b^{2}\right) p^{-1} is also obtainable and cannot be an integer since -1 is not a quadratic residue modulo pp, so Bézout's Theorem shows that p−1p^{-1} is attainable. Now with this goal in mind, observe that ∣(ip)∣=12⋅(12+12)⋅…⋅(12+(p−1)2)p⋅(2p−1)⋅…⋅1 \left|\binom{i}{p}\right|=\frac{1^{2} \cdot\left(1^{2}+1^{2}\right) \cdot \ldots \cdot\left(1^{2}+(p-1)^{2}\right)}{p \cdot(2 p-1) \cdot \ldots \cdot 1} has denominator divisible by pp, but numerator not divisible by pp since again, -1 is not a quadratic residue modulo pp. Hence we can find some integer mm so that m(ip)=(a+bi)p−1m\binom{i}{p}=(a+b i) p^{-1} where aa and bb that aren't both divisible by pp as desired.

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