Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / /3 of 97

Algebra Difficulty 6.9 National olympiad Find the answer

Find all positive integer pairs (a,n)(a,n) such that (a+1)nann\frac{(a+1)^n-a^n}{n} is an integer.

A number or a short expression. Spacing and $ signs are ignored.

Solution

We need to find all positive integer pairs (a,n)(a, n) such that (a+1)nann\frac{(a+1)^n - a^n}{n} is an integer.

First, observe that for (a+1)nann\frac{(a+1)^n - a^n}{n} to be an integer, (a+1)nan(a+1)^n - a^n must be divisible by nn.

Consider the smallest prime divisor pp of nn. We have:
(a+1)nan(modp). (a+1)^n \equiv a^n \pmod{p}.
This implies:
(a+1a)n1(modp). \left(\frac{a+1}{a}\right)^n \equiv 1 \pmod{p}.
Let za+1a(modp)z \equiv \frac{a+1}{a} \pmod{p}. Then:
zn1(modp). z^n \equiv 1 \pmod{p}.
By Fermat's Little Theorem, we know:
zp11(modp). z^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p}.
Since zn1(modp)z^n \equiv 1 \pmod{p}, it follows that:
zgcd(n,p1)1(modp). z^{\gcd(n, p-1)} \equiv 1 \pmod{p}.
Given that pp is the smallest prime divisor of nn, we have gcd(n,p1)=1\gcd(n, p-1) = 1. Therefore:
z1(modp). z \equiv 1 \pmod{p}.
This implies:
a+1a1(modp), \frac{a+1}{a} \equiv 1 \pmod{p},
which simplifies to:
a+1a(modp). a+1 \equiv a \pmod{p}.
Thus:
10(modp), 1 \equiv 0 \pmod{p},
which is a contradiction unless n=1n = 1.

Therefore, the only solution is when n=1n = 1. In this case, (a+1)1a11=1\frac{(a+1)^1 - a^1}{1} = 1, which is always an integer for any positive integer aa.

Hence, the solution is:
(a,n)=(a,1) \boxed{(a, n) = (a, 1)}
for any positive integer aa.

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,000 problems in a working order, from AMC 10 level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: Omni-MATH, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.