Determine if there exists a finite set of positive integers satisfying the following condition: for each at least one of two numbers and
belongs to .
Solution
To determine whether there exists a finite set of positive integers such that for each , at least one of the numbers or belongs to , we proceed as follows:
Assume for the sake of contradiction that such a finite set exists. We will focus on the properties of the elements within this set.
1. Property of Multiplication by 2:
If , then must also be included in . This means that starting from any element , repeatedly multiplying by 2 gives additional elements that must also be in . This forms an infinite sequence .
2. Property of Division by 3:
Similarly, if and is divisible by 3, then must be in . Continuously dividing by 3 (if possible) forms another sequence. However, dividing by 3 can only continue while the result remains a positive integer.
Given that is a finite set, eventually, these procedures of multiplying by 2 and dividing by 3 (when possible) must terminate.
3. Contradiction from Finite Assumption:
Let's explore the implication of having such operations in a supposed finite set :
- Consider the largest element . Applying the doubling process from any element less than or equal to will generate elements potentially larger than . Therefore, these elements must exist in , forcing to expand beyond , contradicting the finiteness of .
- Suppose all elements cannot be divided by 3. Then the requirement can never be satisfied for any . This requires to empty, further implying cannot exist.
Thus, given any initial assumption of the set being finite, we derive contradictions via the infinite generation of elements through multiplication or unfeasible satisfaction of conditions via division by 3. Therefore:
The answer is that no such finite set exists. Thus, the final conclusion is: