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Algebra Difficulty 8.5 Shortlist Find the answer

For each positive integer n n, let c(n) c(n) be the largest real number such that
c(n) | f(a) f(b) a b |\text{c(n) | f(a) f(b) a b |}
for all triples (f,a,b) (f, a, b) such that

--f f is a polynomial of degree n n taking integers to integers, and
--a,b a, b are integers with f(a)f(b) f(a) \neq f(b).

Find c(n) c(n).

Shaunak Kishore.

A number or a short expression. Fractions can be typed as 3/2, and spacing doesn't matter.

Solution

For each positive integer n n , let c(n) c(n) be the largest real number such that
c(n)f(a)f(b)ab c(n) \le \left| \frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a - b} \right|
for all triples (f,a,b) (f, a, b) such that:
- f f is a polynomial of degree n n taking integers to integers, and
- a,b a, b are integers with f(a)f(b) f(a) \neq f(b) .

To find c(n) c(n) , we claim that c(n)=1Ln c(n) = \frac{1}{L_n} , where Ln=lcm(1,2,3,,n) L_n = \text{lcm}(1, 2, 3, \ldots, n) .

First, note that any polynomial f(X) f(X) that maps the integers to the integers can be represented as:
f(X)=c0+c1(X1)+c2(X2)++cn(Xn). f(X) = c_0 + c_1 \binom{X}{1} + c_2 \binom{X}{2} + \cdots + c_n \binom{X}{n}.

### Lemma 1
Ln(an)(bn)abZ L_n \cdot \frac{\binom{a}{n} - \binom{b}{n}}{a - b} \in \mathbb{Z} .

Proof:
Consider the polynomial g(X)=(X+bn)(bn) g(X) = \binom{X + b}{n} - \binom{b}{n} . This polynomial can be written as:
g(X)=d1(X1)++dn(Xn). g(X) = d_1 \binom{X}{1} + \cdots + d_n \binom{X}{n}.
Using the identity 1X(Xn)=1n(X1n1) \frac{1}{X} \binom{X}{n} = \frac{1}{n} \binom{X-1}{n-1} , the denominator of g(X)X \frac{g(X)}{X} must have size at most Ln L_n . Thus, Lng(X)XZ L_n \cdot \frac{g(X)}{X} \in \mathbb{Z} , proving the lemma. \blacksquare

Now, consider:
T=f(a)f(b)ab=k=0nck(ak)(bk)ab. T = \frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a - b} = \sum_{k=0}^n c_k \frac{\binom{a}{k} - \binom{b}{k}}{a - b}.
In particular, for each prime p p ,
vp(ck(ak)(bk)ab)vp(Lk)vp(Ln), v_p \left( c_k \frac{\binom{a}{k} - \binom{b}{k}}{a - b} \right) \ge -v_p(L_k) \ge -v_p(L_n),
so vp(T)vp(Ln) v_p(T) \ge -v_p(L_n) . Therefore, TLnZ T \cdot L_n \in \mathbb{Z} . If T0 T \neq 0 , then T1Ln T \ge \frac{1}{L_n} , establishing a lower bound on c(n) c(n) .

To show that this lower bound is attainable, consider a suitable choice of ci c_i such that:
f(N!)f(0)N!=1Ln \frac{f(N!) - f(0)}{N!} = \frac{1}{L_n}
for large N N . Note that:
(N!k)(0k)N!0=(N!k)N!=(N!1k1)k. \frac{\binom{N!}{k} - \binom{0}{k}}{N! - 0} = \frac{\binom{N!}{k}}{N!} = \frac{\binom{N! - 1}{k - 1}}{k}.
No prime less than or equal to k k divides (N!1k1) \binom{N! - 1}{k - 1} , as the expression can be written as i=1k1N!ii \prod_{i=1}^{k-1} \frac{N! - i}{i} and gcd(N!ii,Lk)=1 \gcd \left( \frac{N! - i}{i}, L_k \right) = 1 for large N N and kn k \le n . Therefore:
f(N!)f(0)N!0=k=0ncktkk \frac{f(N!) - f(0)}{N! - 0} = \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{c_k t_k}{k}
for gcd(tk,k)=1 \gcd(t_k, k) = 1 fixed and some ck c_k . By Bézout's identity, we can choose suitable ci c_i such that the expression equals 1Ln \frac{1}{L_n} .

Thus, we conclude that:
c(n)=1Ln. c(n) = \frac{1}{L_n}.

The answer is: 1Ln.\boxed{\frac{1}{L_n}}.

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Source: Omni-MATH, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.