AlgebraDifficulty 7.9National Olympiad, round 2Find the answer
Is there an infinite sequence of real numbers a1,a2,a3,… such that a1m+a2m+a3m+⋯=m for every positive integer m?
A number or a short expression. Fractions can be typed as 3/2, and spacing doesn't matter.
Solution
No such sequence exists. If it did, then the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality would imply 8=(a12+a22+⋯)(a14+a24+⋯)≥(a13+a23+⋯)2=9, contradiction.
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