Maths Olympiad Prep

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Problem 1647

National Olympiad, first round
Algebra Difficulty 6.3 Prove it Canadian Mathematical Olympiad · Canada

Find all polynomials P(x)P(x) with integer coefficients such that P(P(n)+n)P(P(n)+n) is a prime number for infinitely many integers nn.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solution

Solution:
Note that if P(n)=0P(n)=0 then P(P(n)+n)=P(n)=0P(P(n)+n)=P(n)=0 which is not prime. Let P(x)P(x) be a degree kk polynomial of the form P(x)=akxk+ak1xk1++a0P(x)=a_{k} x^{k}+a_{k-1} x^{k-1}+\cdots+a_{0} and note that if P(n)0P(n) \neq 0 then
P(P(n)+n)P(n)=ak[(P(n)+n)knk]+ak1[(P(n)+n)k1nk1]++a1P(n) \begin{aligned} & P(P(n)+n)-P(n)= \\ & \quad a_{k}\left[(P(n)+n)^{k}-n^{k}\right]+a_{k-1}\left[(P(n)+n)^{k-1}-n^{k-1}\right]+\cdots+a_{1} P(n) \end{aligned}
which is divisible by (P(n)+n)n=P(n)(P(n)+n)-n=P(n). Therefore if P(P(n)+n)P(P(n)+n) is prime then either P(n)=±1P(n)= \pm 1 or P(P(n)+n)=±P(n)=pP(P(n)+n)= \pm P(n)=p for some prime number pp. Since P(x)P(x) is a polynomial, it follows that P(n)=±1P(n)= \pm 1 for only finitely many integers nn. Therefore either P(n)=P(P(n)+n)P(n)=P(P(n)+n) for infinitely many integers nn or P(n)=P(P(n)+n)P(n)=-P(P(n)+n) for infinitely many integers nn.

Suppose that P(n)=P(P(n)+n)P(n)=P(P(n)+n) for infinitely many integers nn. This implies that the polynomial P(P(x)+x)P(x)P(P(x)+x)-P(x) has infinitely many roots and thus is identically zero. Therefore P(P(x)+x)=P(x)P(P(x)+x)=P(x) holds identically. Now note that if k2k \geq 2 then P(P(x)+x)P(P(x)+x) has degree k2k^{2} while P(x)P(x) has degree kk, which is not possible. Therefore P(x)P(x) is at most linear with P(x)=ax+bP(x)=a x+b for some integers aa and bb. Now note that
P(P(x)+x)=a(a+1)x+ab+b P(P(x)+x)=a(a+1) x+a b+b
and thus a=a(a+1)a=a(a+1) and ab+b=ba b+b=b. It follows that a=0a=0 which leads to the solution P(n)=pP(n)=p where pp is a prime number.

By the same argument if P(n)=P(P(n)+n)P(n)=-P(P(n)+n) for infinitely many integers nn then P(x)=P(P(x)+x)P(x)=-P(P(x)+x) holds identically and P(x)P(x) is linear with P(x)=ax+bP(x)=a x+b. In this case it follows that a=a(a+1)a=-a(a+1) and ab+b=ba b+b=-b. This implies that either a=0a=0 or a=2a=-2. If a=2a=-2 then P(n)=2n+bP(n)=-2 n+b which is prime for some integers nn only if bb is odd. Note that in this case P(P(n)+n)=2nbP(P(n)+n)=2 n-b which is indeed prime for infinitely many integers nn as long as bb is odd.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.