a1,a2,...,an Without the loss of generality, let us assume that a1<a2<...<an. Then (ai+1)!≤ai!(an+1), and equality is reached only when i=n.
Let (a1+1)!+(a2+1)!+...+(an+1)!=N(a1!+a2!+...+an!) for some natural number N. Then the condition above yields N≤an+1, moreover, if n>1, then N<an+1.
Let now n>1, then we have that N≤an. Let us prove that it is impossible by showing that:
(a1+1)!+(a2+1)!+...+(an+1)!>an(a1!+a2!+...+an!)
Let's consider the following expression:
(a1+1)!+(a2+1)!+...+(an+1)!−an(a1!+a2!+...+an!)=i=1∑nai!(ai+1−an).
The last term is equal to an!. If an−1=an−1, then the penultimate term is zero. It is enough to consider the following:
i=1∑nai!(ai+1−an)an(an−2)(an−2)!<an!⇒(a1+1)!+(a2+1)!+...+(an+1)!−an(a1!+a2!+...+an!)>0,≤i=1∑an−1ai!(an−1−i)=i=1∑an−2ai!(an−1−i) ≤i=1∑an−2i!an=ani=1∑an−2i!≤
which yields the desired result. Hence, there are no such sets for n>1.