Let be an integer greater than . We want to color red exactly of the numbers in such a way that there are no three distinct numbers colored red satisfying the equality . Prove that there exists one and only one way to choose the numbers to color red that respects the given condition.
Problem 1740
Official solution
Solution:
Let be the set of numbers to color red. If there are no three of them for which , since for every with we have .
It remains therefore to prove that this is the only possible choice for the set .
We prove the statement by induction on , beginning with the case . If, for the sake of contradiction, we had then could not have two consecutive numbers greater than , so necessarily . But, since , this gives a contradiction. If instead but , then would have to contain at least one of the two pairs or , again giving a contradiction with the hypothesis that one cannot have with .
Suppose now that we have proven uniqueness for the number and let us prove it for .
First of all we observe that must contain at least one of the numbers , since otherwise would have to contain numbers between and , which is excluded by the inductive hypothesis (only numbers between and can belong to ).
We also show that must contain both numbers and : if this were not the case, would have to contain at least of the numbers and, by the inductive hypothesis, would have to contain . But this would mean that contains neither nor , a contradiction.
At this point, since , can contain only one of the numbers from the pairs . One sees immediately that since , and therefore . Similarly, , since and therefore . Inductively, for every with , the larger of the elements of the pair must necessarily belong to , and therefore .