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Problem 2413

IMO Shortlist mid-range; USAMO P2/P5
Algebra Difficulty 8.2 Prove it BMO Shortlist · Balkan Mathematical Olympiad · 2022

Let k>1k > 1 be a real number, n≥3n \ge 3 be an integer, and x1≥x2≥x3≥⋯≥xn>0x_1 \ge x_2 \ge x_3 \ge \dots \ge x_n > 0 be real numbers. Prove the inequality:
x1+kx2x2+x3+x2+kx3x3+x4+⋯+xn−1+kxnxn+x1+xn+kx1x1+x2≥n(k+1)2. \frac{x_1 + kx_2}{x_2 + x_3} + \frac{x_2 + kx_3}{x_3 + x_4} + \dots + \frac{x_{n-1} + kx_n}{x_n + x_1} + \frac{x_n + kx_1}{x_1 + x_2} \ge \frac{n(k+1)}{2}.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solutions — 2

Solution 1

Writing xn+1=x1x_{n+1} = x_1, by AM-GM we have
x1+x2x2+x3+x2+x3x3+x4+⋯+xn−1+xnxn+x1+xn+x1x1+x2≥n∏i=1nxi+xi+1xi+1+xi+1=n. \frac{x_1+x_2}{x_2+x_3} + \frac{x_2+x_3}{x_3+x_4} + \dots + \frac{x_{n-1}+x_n}{x_n+x_1} + \frac{x_n+x_1}{x_1+x_2} \ge n \sqrt{\prod_{i=1}^{n} \frac{x_i+x_{i+1}}{x_{i+1}+x_{i+1}}} = n.
So it is enough to prove that
x1x1+x2+x2x2+x3+⋯+xnxn+x1≥n2. \frac{x_1}{x_1+x_2} + \frac{x_2}{x_2+x_3} + \dots + \frac{x_n}{x_n+x_1} \ge \frac{n}{2}.
Letting ai=xi+1/xia_i = x_{i+1}/x_i for i=1,2,…,ni = 1, 2, \dots, n, it is enough to prove that
11+a1+⋯+11+an≥n2. \frac{1}{1+a_1} + \dots + \frac{1}{1+a_n} \ge \frac{n}{2}.
Note that a1,…,an−1≤1a_1, \dots, a_{n-1} \le 1 and a1a2…an=1a_1a_2 \dots a_n = 1.
Equivalently, it is enough to prove that if m≥2m \ge 2 is an integer and a1,…,am≤1a_1, \dots, a_m \le 1 are real numbers then
11+a1+⋯+11+am≥m+12−a1a2…am1+a1a2…am. \frac{1}{1+a_1} + \dots + \frac{1}{1+a_m} \ge \frac{m+1}{2} - \frac{a_1 a_2 \dots a_m}{1+a_1 a_2 \dots a_m}.
We proceed by induction on mm. In fact the statement is true even for m=1m = 1 so we assume that it is true for m=km = k and proceed with the inductive step. Letting a=a1…aka = a_1 \dots a_k and b=ak+1b = a_{k+1} it is enough to prove that
11+b−a1+a≥12−ab1+ab. \frac{1}{1+b} - \frac{a}{1+a} \ge \frac{1}{2} - \frac{ab}{1+ab}.
We have
a1+a−ab1+ab=a(1−b)(1+a)(1+ab)≤1−b1+b=11+b−12 \frac{a}{1+a} - \frac{ab}{1+ab} = \frac{a(1-b)}{(1+a)(1+ab)} \le \frac{1-b}{1+b} = \frac{1}{1+b} - \frac{1}{2}
so the result follows.

Solution 2

Since 11+x=12+12⋅1−x1+x\frac{1}{1+x} = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1-x}{1+x}, with the notation of Solution 1 it is enough to prove that
1−a11+a1+⋯+1−an1+an≥0. \frac{1-a_1}{1+a_1} + \dots + \frac{1-a_n}{1+a_n} \ge 0.
Letting f(x)=1−x1+xf(x) = \frac{1-x}{1+x} one can check that
f(x)+f(y)−f(xy)=(1−x)(1−y)(1−xy)(1+x)(1+y)(1+xy). f(x) + f(y) - f(xy) = \frac{(1-x)(1-y)(1-xy)}{(1+x)(1+y)(1+xy)}.
Thus f(x)+f(y)≥f(xy)f(x) + f(y) \ge f(xy) for x,y≤1x, y \le 1. So inductively
1−a11+a1+⋯+1−an−11+an−1≥1−a1…an−11+a1…an−1=1−1/an1+1/an=−1−an1+an \frac{1-a_1}{1+a_1} + \dots + \frac{1-a_{n-1}}{1+a_{n-1}} \ge \frac{1-a_1 \dots a_{n-1}}{1+a_1 \dots a_{n-1}} = \frac{1-1/a_n}{1+1/a_n} = -\frac{1-a_n}{1+a_n}
and the result follows.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.