Let k>1 be a real number, n≥3 be an integer, and x1≥x2≥x3≥⋯≥xn>0 be real numbers. Prove the inequality: x2+x3x1+kx2+x3+x4x2+kx3+⋯+xn+x1xn−1+kxn+x1+x2xn+kx1≥2n(k+1).
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Official solutions — 2
Solution 1
Writing xn+1=x1, by AM-GM we have x2+x3x1+x2+x3+x4x2+x3+⋯+xn+x1xn−1+xn+x1+x2xn+x1≥ni=1∏nxi+1+xi+1xi+xi+1=n. So it is enough to prove that x1+x2x1+x2+x3x2+⋯+xn+x1xn≥2n. Letting ai=xi+1/xi for i=1,2,…,n, it is enough to prove that 1+a11+⋯+1+an1≥2n. Note that a1,…,an−1≤1 and a1a2…an=1. Equivalently, it is enough to prove that if m≥2 is an integer and a1,…,am≤1 are real numbers then 1+a11+⋯+1+am1≥2m+1−1+a1a2…ama1a2…am. We proceed by induction on m. In fact the statement is true even for m=1 so we assume that it is true for m=k and proceed with the inductive step. Letting a=a1…ak and b=ak+1 it is enough to prove that 1+b1−1+aa≥21−1+abab. We have 1+aa−1+abab=(1+a)(1+ab)a(1−b)≤1+b1−b=1+b1−21 so the result follows.
Solution 2
Since 1+x1=21+21⋅1+x1−x, with the notation of Solution 1 it is enough to prove that 1+a11−a1+⋯+1+an1−an≥0. Letting f(x)=1+x1−x one can check that f(x)+f(y)−f(xy)=(1+x)(1+y)(1+xy)(1−x)(1−y)(1−xy). Thus f(x)+f(y)≥f(xy) for x,y≤1. So inductively 1+a11−a1+⋯+1+an−11−an−1≥1+a1…an−11−a1…an−1=1+1/an1−1/an=−1+an1−an and the result follows.
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