Maths Olympiad Prep

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Problem 1846

National Olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.3 Prove it Brazilian Mathematical Olympiad · Brazil

p(x1,x2,…,xn)p(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n) is a polynomial with integer coefficients. For each positive integer rr, k(r)k(r) is the number of nn-tuples (a1,a2,…,an)(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n) such that 0≤ai≤r−10 \le a_i \le r - 1 and p(a1,a2,…,an)p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n) is prime to rr. Show that if uu and vv are coprime then k(u⋅v)=k(u)⋅k(v)k(u \cdot v) = k(u) \cdot k(v), and if pp is prime then k(ps)=pn(s−1)k(p)k(p^s) = p^{n(s-1)}k(p).

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solution

First observe that if ai≡bi(modr)a_i \equiv b_i \pmod r, i=1,2,…,ni = 1, 2, \dots, n then p(a1,a2,…,an)≡p(b1,b2,…,bn)(modr)p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n) \equiv p(b_1, b_2, \dots, b_n) \pmod r. If uu and vv are coprime then given b1,b2,…,bnb_1, b_2, \dots, b_n and c1,c2,…,cnc_1, c_2, \dots, c_n with 0≤bi<u0 \le b_i < u and 0≤ci<v0 \le c_i < v by the chinese remainder theorem there exist unique integers a1,a2,…,ana_1, a_2, \dots, a_n with 0≤ai<uv0 \le a_i < uv such that ai≡bi(modu)a_i \equiv b_i \pmod u and ai≡ci(modv)a_i \equiv c_i \pmod v, which imply p(a1,a2,…,an)≡p(b1,b2,…,bn)(modu)p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n) \equiv p(b_1, b_2, \dots, b_n) \pmod u, p(a1,a2,…,an)≡p(c1,c2,…,cn)(modv)p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n) \equiv p(c_1, c_2, \dots, c_n) \pmod v. Thus
gcd⁡(p(a1,a2,…,an),uv)=1  ⟺  {gcd⁡(p(a1,a2,…,an),u)=1gcd⁡(p(a1,a2,…,an),v)=1 \gcd(p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n), uv) = 1 \iff \begin{cases} \gcd(p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n), u) = 1 \\ \gcd(p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n), v) = 1 \end{cases}
and k(uv)=k(u)⋅k(v)k(uv) = k(u) \cdot k(v).
For pp prime gcd⁡(p(a1,a2,…,an),ps)=1  ⟺  gcd⁡(p(a1,a2,…,an),p)=1\gcd(p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n), p^s) = 1 \iff \gcd(p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n), p) = 1. Divide each aia_i by pp, obtaining quotient qiq_i and remainder rir_i. Reducing modulo pp, we obtain gcd⁡(p(a1,a2,…,an),p)=1  ⟺  gcd⁡(p(r1,r2,…,rn),p)=1\gcd(p(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n), p) = 1 \iff \gcd(p(r_1, r_2, \dots, r_n), p) = 1. Given rir_i there are ps/p=ps−1p^s/p = p^{s-1} possibilities for qiq_i such that 0≤ai<ps0 \le a_i < p^s. Hence k(ps)=(ps−1)nk(p)=pn(s−1)k(p)k(p^s) = (p^{s-1})^n k(p) = p^{n(s-1)} k(p), as required.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.