Maths Olympiad Prep

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Problem 2032

National Olympiad second round; IMO P1/P4
Number theory Difficulty 7.5 Prove it NMO Selection Tests for BMO and IMO · Romania

Given positive integers kk and mm, show that mm and (nk)\binom{n}{k} are coprime for infinitely many integers nkn \ge k.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solution

Let n=k+lmk!n = k + l m k!, where ll is an arbitrary nonnegative integer, let pp be any prime factor of mm, and let php^h be the highest power of pp that divides k!k! — that is, php^h divides k!k! but ph+1p^{h+1} does not. Notice that nk(modph+1)n \equiv k \pmod{p^{h+1}}, to deduce that n(n1)(nk+1)k!(modph+1)n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1) \equiv k! \pmod{p^{h+1}}, so php^h is also the highest power of pp that divides the product n(n1)(nk+1)n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1). Consequently, pp does not divide (nk)\binom{n}{k}, so mm and (nk)\binom{n}{k} are indeed coprime.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.