Number theoryDifficulty 7.5Prove itNMO Selection Tests for BMO and IMO · Romania
Given positive integers k and m, show that m and (kn) are coprime for infinitely many integers n≥k.
This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.
Let n=k+lmk!, where l is an arbitrary nonnegative integer, let p be any prime factor of m, and let ph be the highest power of p that divides k! — that is, ph divides k! but ph+1 does not. Notice that n≡k(modph+1), to deduce that n(n−1)⋯(n−k+1)≡k!(modph+1), so ph is also the highest power of p that divides the product n(n−1)⋯(n−k+1). Consequently, p does not divide (kn), so m and (kn) are indeed coprime.
Source: MathNet,
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