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Problem 1731

National Olympiad, first round
Algebra Difficulty 6.1 Prove it Serbian Mathematical Olympiad · Serbia

Let the sequence (an)n⩾1\left(a_{n}\right)_{n \geqslant 1} be defined by a1=3,a2=11a_{1}=3, a_{2}=11 and an=4an−1−an−2a_{n}=4 a_{n-1}-a_{n-2}, for n⩾3n \geqslant 3. Prove that every term of this sequence is of the form a2+2b2a^{2}+2 b^{2} for some natural numbers aa and bb.

(Đorđe Baralić)

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solution

Solution:

We have a1=1+2⋅12,a2=32+2⋅12,a3=32+2⋅42,a4=112+2⋅42a_{1}=1+2 \cdot 1^{2}, a_{2}=3^{2}+2 \cdot 1^{2}, a_{3}=3^{2}+2 \cdot 4^{2}, a_{4}=11^{2}+2 \cdot 4^{2}, etc. We will prove by induction on nn that
a2n−1=an−12+2(an−an−12)2 and a2n=an2+2(an−an−12)2, a_{2 n-1}=a_{n-1}^{2}+2\left(\frac{a_{n}-a_{n-1}}{2}\right)^{2} \quad \text { and } \quad a_{2 n}=a_{n}^{2}+2\left(\frac{a_{n}-a_{n-1}}{2}\right)^{2},
where a0=1a_{0}=1. Assume that the claim holds for nn. Then
a2n+1=4a2n−a2n−1=4an2+8(an−an−12)2−an−12−2(an−an−12)2=112an2−3anan−1+12an−12=112an2−3an(4an−an+1)+12(4an−an+1)2=32an2−anan+1+12an+12=an2+2(an+1−an2)2a2n+2=4a2n+1−a2n=4an2+8(an+1−an2)2−an2−2(an−an−12)2=3an2+8(an+1−an2)2−2(an+1−3an2)2=32an+12−anan+1+12an2=an+12+2(an+1−an2)2, \begin{aligned} a_{2 n+1} & =4 a_{2 n}-a_{2 n-1}=4 a_{n}^{2}+8\left(\frac{a_{n}-a_{n-1}}{2}\right)^{2}-a_{n-1}^{2}-2\left(\frac{a_{n}-a_{n-1}}{2}\right)^{2} \\ & =\frac{11}{2} a_{n}^{2}-3 a_{n} a_{n-1}+\frac{1}{2} a_{n-1}^{2}=\frac{11}{2} a_{n}^{2}-3 a_{n}\left(4 a_{n}-a_{n+1}\right)+\frac{1}{2}\left(4 a_{n}-a_{n+1}\right)^{2} \\ & =\frac{3}{2} a_{n}^{2}-a_{n} a_{n+1}+\frac{1}{2} a_{n+1}^{2}=a_{n}^{2}+2\left(\frac{a_{n+1}-a_{n}}{2}\right)^{2} \\ a_{2 n+2} & =4 a_{2 n+1}-a_{2 n}=4 a_{n}^{2}+8\left(\frac{a_{n+1}-a_{n}}{2}\right)^{2}-a_{n}^{2}-2\left(\frac{a_{n}-a_{n-1}}{2}\right)^{2} \\ & =3 a_{n}^{2}+8\left(\frac{a_{n+1}-a_{n}}{2}\right)^{2}-2\left(\frac{a_{n+1}-3 a_{n}}{2}\right)^{2}=\frac{3}{2} a_{n+1}^{2}-a_{n} a_{n+1}+\frac{1}{2} a_{n}^{2} \\ & =a_{n+1}^{2}+2\left(\frac{a_{n+1}-a_{n}}{2}\right)^{2}, \end{aligned}
which completes the proof.

Second solution. It is known that an odd natural number m>1m>1 can be represented in the form a2+2b2a^{2}+2 b^{2} for some coprime a,b∈Na, b \in \mathbb{N} if and only if all prime divisors of mm are of the form 8k+18 k+1 or 8k+3,k∈N08 k+3, k \in \mathbb{N}_{0}. It is easy to see that all terms of the sequence (an)( a_{n}) are odd; it remains to show that if a prime number pp divides ana_{n}, then p=8k+1p=8 k+1 or p=8k+3p=8 k+3 for some k∈N0k \in \mathbb{N}_{0}.

One shows by induction on nn that anan+2=an+12+2a_{n} a_{n+2}=a_{n+1}^{2}+2. Indeed, this holds for n≤2n \leq 2, and for n>2n>2, assuming it holds for n−2n-2, we have
an+12+2an=(4an−an−1)2+2an=16an−8an−1+an−12+2an=16an−8an−1+an−2=4an+1−an=an+2 \begin{aligned} \frac{a_{n+1}^{2}+2}{a_{n}} & =\frac{\left(4 a_{n}-a_{n-1}\right)^{2}+2}{a_{n}}=16 a_{n}-8 a_{n-1}+\frac{a_{n-1}^{2}+2}{a_{n}} \\ & =16 a_{n}-8 a_{n-1}+a_{n-2}=4 a_{n+1}-a_{n}=a_{n+2} \end{aligned}
From this it follows that −2-2 is a quadratic residue modulo every prime divisor pp of the number ana_{n}, so p≡1p \equiv 1 or p≡3( mod 8)p \equiv 3(\bmod 8).

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement translated into English from sr; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.