Olympiad Maths Prep

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Problem 1764

IMO Shortlist mid-range; USAMO P2/P5
Combinatorics Difficulty 8.3 Prove it China National Team Selection Test · China

Every positive integer is colored by blue or red. Prove that there is a sequence {an}\{a_n\} which has infinite terms, and a1<a2<a_1 < a_2 < \dots are positive integers, such that a1a_1, a1+a22\frac{a_1+a_2}{2}, a2a_2, a2+a32\frac{a_2+a_3}{2}, a3a_3, \dots is a positive integer sequence with the same color.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.

Official solution

We need three lemmas. Firstly, define NN^* as the set of all the positive integers.

Lemma 1 If there is an arithmetic progression having infinite positive integer terms with the same color, then the conclusion holds.

Proof: Let c1<c2<<cn<c_1 < c_2 < \dots < c_n < \dots be a red arithmetic progression of positive integers, we can set ai=c2i1a_i = c_{2i-1} (i=1,2,3,i = 1, 2, 3, \dots) to obtain a sequence such that the condition holds.

Lemma 2 If for any iNi \in N^*, there exists a positive integer jj, such that i,i+j2i, \frac{i+j}{2}, jj are of the same color, then the conclusion holds.

Proof: Let a1=1a_1 = 1, and a1a_1 be red. Since there exists kNk \in N^* such that a1,a1+k2a_1, \frac{a_1+k}{2}, kk have the same color, so we can set a2=ka_2 = k. In the same way, we can have a sequence of red numbers satisfying
a1<a1+a22<a2<a2+a32<a3< a_1 < \frac{a_1+a_2}{2} < a_2 < \frac{a_2+a_3}{2} < a_3 < \dots

Lemma 3 If there is no arithmetic progression satisfying the condition of Lemma 1, and there exists i0Ni_0 \in N^*, such that for every jNj \in N^*, i0,i0+j2i_0, \frac{i_0+j}{2}, jj have different colors, then the conclusion holds.

Proof: We can suppose i0=1i_0 = 1, otherwise using N={ni0nN}N' = \{ni_0 \mid n \in \mathbb{N}^*\} in place of N\mathbb{N}^*, will yield the same result.
Let i0=1i_0 = 1 be a red number. Then we have the following condition: For every kNk \in \mathbb{N}^*, k2k \ge 2, kk and 2k12k-1 cannot be both red. ①
Since there is no arithmetic progression having infinite terms with the same color, therefore there are infinite terms of blue colored numbers of different parities in N\mathbb{N}^*. We prove there is an infinite sequence of odd numbers of blue color in N\mathbb{N}^*.
Let a1a_1 be a blue odd number, and suppose odd numbers a1<a2<<ana_1 < a_2 < \dots < a_n satisfy that
a1<a1+a22<a2<<an1<an1+an2<an a_1 < \frac{a_1 + a_2}{2} < a_2 < \dots < a_{n-1} < \frac{a_{n-1} + a_n}{2} < a_n
are all blue. Now we prove there exists an odd number an+1Na_{n+1} \in \mathbb{N}^*, such that an+an+12\frac{a_n + a_{n+1}}{2} and an+1a_{n+1} are blue. ②

(1) If for every iNi \in \mathbb{N}^*, the numbers an+i,an+2ia_n + i, a_n + 2i have different colors, and there is no an+1a_{n+1} satisfying ②, then for an+1>ana_{n+1} > a_n, numbers an+an+12\frac{a_n + a_{n+1}}{2} and an+1a_{n+1} cannot be both blue. ③
Since there is no arithmetic progression with infinite terms of the same color, there must exist infinitely many red and blue numbers in N\mathbb{N}^*. Let iNi \in \mathbb{N}^* such that an+ia_n + i is red, then an+2ia_n + 2i is blue. Write an=2k+1a_n = 2k+1, we know 2k+12k+1 is blue, 2k+i+12k+i+1 is red, 2k+2i+12k+2i+1 is blue. Using ①, we know that 4k+2i+1(=2(2k+i+1)1)4k+2i+1(=2(2k+i+1)-1) is blue. Similarly from ③, 3k+i+1=(2k+1)+(4k+2i+1)23k+i+1 = \frac{(2k+1) + (4k+2i+1)}{2} is red. From ① we get 6k+2i+1=2(3k+i+1)16k + 2i + 1 = 2(3k + i + 1) - 1 to be blue, and so on. Consequently, we have an arithmetic progression {2nk+2i+1}i=1\{2nk + 2i + 1\}_{i=1}^{\infty} of blue numbers, contradiction! Hence there must be a number an+1a_{n+1} satisfying ②.

(2) Suppose there is iNi \in \mathbb{N}^*, such that an+ia_n + i and an+2ia_n + 2i have the same color. Let an=2k+1a_n = 2k+1.
Firstly, if an+ia_n + i and an+2ia_n + 2i are blue, then an+1=an+2ia_{n+1} = a_n + 2i, satisfying ②.
Secondly, if an+ia_n + i and an+2ia_n + 2i are red, then from ① we have 4k+2i+1(=2(2k+i+1)1)4k + 2i + 1 (=2(2k + i + 1) - 1) and 4k+4i+1(=2(2k+2i+1)1)4k + 4i + 1 (=2(2k + 2i + 1) - 1) being blue. So if 3k+2i+1=(2k+1)+(4k+4i+1)23k + 2i + 1 = \frac{(2k + 1) + (4k + 4i + 1)}{2} are blue, then an+1=4k+4i+1a_{n+1} = 4k + 4i + 1, hence satisfying ②, otherwise, the number 6k+4i+1(=2(3k+2i+1)1)6k + 4i + 1 (=2(3k + 2i + 1) - 1) is blue, then an+1=6k+4i+1a_{n+1} = 6k + 4i + 1, satisfying ②. Hence proving Lemma 3.

Therefore combining Lemmas 1, 2 and 3, we are done.

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