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Problem 1874

National Olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.4 Prove it China Girls' Mathematical Olympiad · China

A positive integer mm is called good, if there is a positive integer nn such that mm is the quotient of nn over the number of positive integer divisors of nn (including 1 and nn itself). Prove that 1,2,…,171, 2, \ldots, 17 are good numbers and that 1818 is not a good number.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solution

For positive integer nn, let d(n)d(n) denote the number of positive divisors of nn (including 11 and nn itself).

Firstly, note that 11 and 22 are good, since 1=2d(2)1 = \frac{2}{d(2)} and
2=8d(8). 2 = \frac{8}{d(8)}.

Secondly, we note that if pp is an odd prime, then pp is good. This is because d(8p)=8d(8p) = 8. In particular, 3,5,7,11,13,173, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17 are good numbers.

Thirdly, we note that if pp is an odd prime, then 2p2p is good. This is because d(22⋅32p)=3⋅3⋅2d(2^2 \cdot 3^2 p) = 3 \cdot 3 \cdot 2. In particular, 6,10,146, 10, 14 are good numbers.

Fourthly, we note that
4=36d(36),8=96d(96),9=108d(108), 4 = \frac{36}{d(36)}, \quad 8 = \frac{96}{d(96)}, \quad 9 = \frac{108}{d(108)},
12=240d(240),15=360d(360),16=128d(128). 12 = \frac{240}{d(240)}, \quad 15 = \frac{360}{d(360)}, \quad 16 = \frac{128}{d(128)}.
Thus, the numbers 1,2,…,171, 2, \ldots, 17 are good.

Finally, we prove that 1818 is not good. We approach indirectly by assuming that 18=nd(n)18 = \frac{n}{d(n)} or n=18d(n)n = 18 d(n) for n=2a⋅3b+1⋅p1k1⋯pmkmn = 2^a \cdot 3^{b+1} \cdot p_1^{k_1} \cdots p_m^{k_m} (where p1<⋯<pmp_1 < \cdots < p_m are prime numbers greater than 33 and a,b,k1,⋯ ,kma, b, k_1, \cdots, k_m are positive integers); that is,
2a−1⋅3b−1⋅p1k1⋯pmkm=(a+1)(b+2)(k1+1)⋯(km+1).1◯ 2^{a-1} \cdot 3^{b-1} \cdot p_1^{k_1} \cdots p_m^{k_m} = (a+1)(b+2)(k_1+1)\cdots(k_m+1). \qquad \textcircled{1}
For every odd prime pp and every positive integer kk, we can show (by an easy induction on kk) that
pk>k+1.2◯ p^k > k+1. \qquad \textcircled{2}
Combining the last two relations, we deduce that
2a−1⋅3b−1<(a+1)(b+2) 2^{a-1} \cdot 3^{b-1} < (a+1)(b+2)
or
f(a)=2a−1a+1<b+23b−1=g(b). f(a) = \frac{2^{a-1}}{a+1} < \frac{b+2}{3^{b-1}} = g(b).
It is easy to prove that f(1)=12f(1) = \frac{1}{2}, f(2)=23f(2) = \frac{2}{3}, f(3)=1f(3) = 1, f(4)=85f(4) = \frac{8}{5}, f(5)=166f(5) = \frac{16}{6}, and f(a)≥327>4f(a) \ge \frac{32}{7} > 4 for a≥6a \ge 6. It is also easy to prove that g(1)=3g(1) = 3, g(2)=43g(2) = \frac{4}{3}, g(3)<59g(3) < \frac{5}{9}, and g(b)<29g(b) < \frac{2}{9} for b≥4b \ge 4. Thus 1◯\textcircled{1} holds only if b≤3b \le 3.

If b=3b=3, then (a,b)=(1,3)(a, b) = (1, 3), and 1◯\textcircled{1} becomes
9p1k1⋯pmkm=10(k1+1)⋯(km+1), 9p_1^{k_1} \cdots p_m^{k_m} = 10(k_1 + 1)\cdots(k_m + 1),
implying that p1=5p_1 = 5. Since 2◯\textcircled{2} and p1k1k1+1=5k1k1+1≥52\frac{p_1^{k_1}}{k_1+1} = \frac{5^{k_1}}{k_1+1} \ge \frac{5}{2} for positive integer k1≥1k_1 \ge 1, we can easily see that there is no solution in this case.

If b=2b=2, then (a,b)=(1,2)(a, b) = (1, 2), (2,2)(2, 2), (3,2)(3, 2), and 1◯\textcircled{1} becomes
3⋅2a−1p1k1⋯pmkm=4(a+1)(k1+1)⋯(km+1). 3 \cdot 2^{a-1} p_1^{k_1} \cdots p_m^{k_m} = 4(a+1)(k_1+1) \cdots (k_m+1).
We deduce that 44 divides 2a−12^{a-1} or a≥3a \ge 3. Hence aa must be equal to 33. But then 4(a+1)=164(a+1) = 16 divides 2a−12^{a-1}, which is impossible.

If b=1b=1, then (a,b)=(1,1)(a, b) = (1, 1), (2,1)(2, 1), (3,1)(3, 1), (4,1)(4, 1), (5,1)(5, 1), and 1◯\textcircled{1} becomes
2a−1p1k1⋯pmkm=3(a+1)(k1+1)⋯(km+1), 2^{a-1} p_1^{k_1} \cdots p_m^{k_m} = 3(a+1)(k_1+1) \cdots (k_m+1),
which is impossible since pip_i are primes greater than 33.

In all the cases, we cannot find nn satisfying the condition 18=nd(n)18 = \frac{n}{d(n)}; that is, 1818 is not a good number.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.