Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 8 / 149 of 180 #1849 of 1964

Problem 1849

IMO Shortlist mid-range; USAMO P2/P5
Algebra Difficulty 8.6 Prove it International Mathematical Olympiad Shortlisted Problems · IMO

Let Z>0\mathbb{Z}_{>0} be the set of positive integers. Find all functions f:Z>0Z>0f: \mathbb{Z}_{>0} \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_{>0} such that
m2+f(n)mf(m)+n m^{2}+f(n) \mid m f(m)+n
for all positive integers mm and nn.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

Answer. f(n)=nf(n)=n.

Solution 1. Setting m=n=2m=n=2 tells us that 4+f(2)2f(2)+24+f(2) \mid 2 f(2)+2. Since 2f(2)+2<2(4+f(2))2 f(2)+2<2(4+f(2)), we must have 2f(2)+2=4+f(2)2 f(2)+2=4+f(2), so f(2)=2f(2)=2. Plugging in m=2m=2 then tells us that 4+f(n)4+n4+f(n) \mid 4+n, which implies that f(n)nf(n) \leqslant n for all nn.
Setting m=nm=n gives n2+f(n)nf(n)+nn^{2}+f(n) \mid n f(n)+n, so nf(n)+nn2+f(n)n f(n)+n \geqslant n^{2}+f(n) which we rewrite as (n1)(f(n)n)0(n-1)(f(n)-n) \geqslant 0. Therefore f(n)nf(n) \geqslant n for all n2n \geqslant 2. This is trivially true for n=1n=1 also.
It follows that f(n)=nf(n)=n for all nn. This function obviously satisfies the desired property.

Solution 2. Setting m=f(n)m=f(n) we get f(n)(f(n)+1)f(n)f(f(n))+nf(n)(f(n)+1) \mid f(n) f(f(n))+n. This implies that f(n)nf(n) \mid n for all nn.
Now let mm be any positive integer, and let p>2m2p>2 m^{2} be a prime number. Note that p>mf(m)p>m f(m) also. Plugging in n=pmf(m)n=p-m f(m) we learn that m2+f(n)m^{2}+f(n) divides pp. Since m2+f(n)m^{2}+f(n) cannot equal 1, it must equal pp. Therefore pm2=f(n)n=pmf(m)p-m^{2}=f(n) \mid n=p-m f(m). But pmf(m)<p<2(pm2)p-m f(m)<p<2\left(p-m^{2}\right), so we must have pmf(m)=pm2p-m f(m)=p-m^{2}, i.e., f(m)=mf(m)=m.

Solution 3. Plugging m=1m=1 we obtain 1+f(n)f(1)+n1+f(n) \leqslant f(1)+n, so f(n)n+cf(n) \leqslant n+c for the constant c=f(1)1c= f(1)-1. Assume that f(n)nf(n) \neq n for some fixed nn. When mm is large enough (e.g. mmax(n,c+1)m \geqslant \max (n, c+1) ) we have
mf(m)+nm(m+c)+n2m2<2(m2+f(n)), m f(m)+n \leqslant m(m+c)+n \leqslant 2 m^{2}<2\left(m^{2}+f(n)\right),
so we must have mf(m)+n=m2+f(n)m f(m)+n=m^{2}+f(n). This implies that
0f(n)n=m(f(m)m), 0 \neq f(n)-n=m(f(m)-m),
which is impossible for m>f(n)nm>|f(n)-n|. It follows that ff is the identity function.

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