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Problem 1433

AIME late
Algebra Difficulty 5.3 Prove it CMO · Canada · 2017

Let aa, bb, and cc be non-negative real numbers, no two of which are equal. Prove that
a2(b−c)2+b2(c−a)2+c2(a−b)2>2. \frac{a^2}{(b-c)^2} + \frac{b^2}{(c-a)^2} + \frac{c^2}{(a-b)^2} > 2.

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Official solution

The left-hand side is symmetric with respect to aa, bb, cc. Hence, we may assume that a>b>c≥0a > b > c \ge 0. Note that replacing (a,b,c)(a, b, c) with (a−c,b−c,0)(a-c, b-c, 0) lowers the value of the left-hand side, since the numerators of each of the fractions would decrease and the denominators remain the same. Therefore, to obtain the minimum possible value of the left-hand side, we may assume that c=0c=0.
Then the left-hand side becomes
a2b2+b2a2, \frac{a^2}{b^2} + \frac{b^2}{a^2},
which yields, by the Arithmetic Mean - Geometric Mean Inequality,
a2b2+b2a2≥2a2b2⋅b2a2=2, \frac{a^2}{b^2} + \frac{b^2}{a^2} \ge 2\sqrt{\frac{a^2}{b^2} \cdot \frac{b^2}{a^2}} = 2,
with equality if and only if a2/b2=b2/a2a^2/b^2 = b^2/a^2, or equivalently, a4=b4a^4 = b^4. Since a,b≥0a, b \ge 0, a=ba = b. But since no two of a,b,ca, b, c are equal, a≠ba \ne b. Hence, equality cannot hold. This yields
a2b2+b2a2>2. \frac{a^2}{b^2} + \frac{b^2}{a^2} > 2.
Ultimately, this implies the desired inequality. □\square

a2(b−c)2+b2(c−a)2+c2(a−b)2−2=[a(a−b)(a−c)+b(b−a)(b−c)+c(c−a)(c−b)]2[(a−b)(b−c)(c−a)]2. \frac{a^2}{(b-c)^2} + \frac{b^2}{(c-a)^2} + \frac{c^2}{(a-b)^2} - 2 = \frac{[a(a-b)(a-c) + b(b-a)(b-c) + c(c-a)(c-b)]^2}{[(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)]^2}.
Then Schur's Inequality tells us that the numerator of the right-hand side cannot be zero. □\square

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