AlgebraDifficulty 4.8Prove itChina Mathematical Competition · China
It is given that f(x) is a function defined on R, satisfying f(1)=1, and for any x∈R, f(x+5)≥f(x)+5,
and f(x+1)≤f(x)+1. If g(x)=f(x)+1−x, then g(2002)=.
This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.
We determine f(2002) first. From the conditions given, we have f(x)+5≤f(x+5)≤f(x+4)+1≤f(x+3)+2≤f(x+2)+3≤f(x+1)+4≤f(x)+5. Thus the equality holds for all. So we have f(x+1)=f(x)+1.
Hence, from f(1)=1, we get f(2)=2, f(3)=3, ..., f(2002)=2002. Therefore, g(2002)=f(2002)+1−2002=1.
Source: MathNet,
licensed CC-BY-4.0.
Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.