Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 362 of 400 #2002 of 2604

Problem 2002

National Olympiad, first round
Geometry Difficulty 6.8 Prove it Irish Mathematical Olympiad · Ireland

The three distinct points BB, CC, DD are collinear with CC between BB and DD. Another point AA not on the line BDBD is such that ∣AB∣=∣AC∣=∣CD∣|AB| = |AC| = |CD|.
Prove that ∠BAC=36∘\angle BAC = 36^\circ if and only if 1∣CD∣−1∣BD∣=1∣CD∣+∣BD∣\frac{1}{|CD|} - \frac{1}{|BD|} = \frac{1}{|CD| + |BD|}.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Next problem →

Official solution

Let α\alpha be the size of the angle ∠CAD\angle CAD. Because ∣AB∣=∣AC∣=∣CD∣|AB| = |AC| = |CD|, we have ∠ABC=∠BCA=∠CAD+∠CDA=2∠CAD=2α\angle ABC = \angle BCA = \angle CAD + \angle CDA = 2\angle CAD = 2\alpha. Therefore, ∠BAD=∠DBA\angle BAD = \angle DBA if and only if ∠BAC=α\angle BAC = \alpha. On the other hand, because ∠BAC=180∘−4α\angle BAC = 180^\circ - 4\alpha, we see that ∠BAC=α\angle BAC = \alpha if and only if α=36∘\alpha = 36^\circ. Therefore, it suffices to show that
1∣CD∣−1∣BD∣=1∣CD∣+∣BD∣is equivalent to∠BAD=∠DBA. \frac{1}{|CD|} - \frac{1}{|BD|} = \frac{1}{|CD| + |BD|} \quad \text{is equivalent to} \quad \angle BAD = \angle DBA.

Figure 1

Because ∣AB∣=∣AC∣=∣CD∣|AB| = |AC| = |CD| and CC is between BB and DD, the equation
1∣CD∣−1∣BD∣=1∣CD∣+∣BD∣is equivalent to \frac{1}{|CD|} - \frac{1}{|BD|} = \frac{1}{|CD| + |BD|} \quad \text{is equivalent to}
1∣AB∣−1∣BC∣+∣AB∣=1∣AB∣+∣BD∣,or \frac{1}{|AB|} - \frac{1}{|BC| + |AB|} = \frac{1}{|AB| + |BD|}, \quad \text{or}
∣BC∣∣AB∣(∣BC∣+∣AB∣)=1∣AB∣+∣BD∣,which simplifies to \frac{|BC|}{|AB|( |BC| + |AB|)} = \frac{1}{|AB| + |BD|}, \quad \text{which simplifies to}
∣BC∣⋅∣BD∣=∣AB∣2, or equivalently, ∣AB∣∣BD∣=∣BC∣∣AB∣. |BC| \cdot |BD| = |AB|^2, \text{ or equivalently, } \frac{|AB|}{|BD|} = \frac{|BC|}{|AB|}.
Because the triangles ABCABC and ABDABD have a common angle at BB, this last equation is equivalent to these two triangles being similar such that sides ABAB and BDBD in triangle ABDABD correspond to sides BCBC and ABAB in triangle ABCABC. Because △ABC\triangle ABC is isosceles, this is equivalent to triangle BDABDA being isosceles with ∠BAD=∠DBA\angle BAD = \angle DBA, which, as seen above, is equivalent to ∠BAC=36∘\angle BAC = 36^\circ.

As usual, we let α=∠BAC\alpha = \angle BAC, β=∠ABC\beta = \angle ABC, a=∣BC∣a = |BC| and b=∣AC∣=∣AB∣=cb = |AC| = |AB| = c. Because ∣CD∣=b|CD| = b and CC is between BB and DD, the equation
1∣CD∣−1∣BD∣=1∣CD∣+∣BD∣is equivalent to \frac{1}{|CD|} - \frac{1}{|BD|} = \frac{1}{|CD| + |BD|} \quad \text{is equivalent to}
1b−1a+b=1a+2borab(a+b)=1a+2b,which can be written as \frac{1}{b} - \frac{1}{a+b} = \frac{1}{a+2b} \quad \text{or} \quad \frac{a}{b(a+b)} = \frac{1}{a+2b}, \quad \text{which can be written as}
a(a+2b)=b(a+b), i.e. a2+ab=b2. Introducing x=a/b, we see now that a(a+2b) = b(a+b), \text{ i.e. } a^2 + ab = b^2. \text{ Introducing } x = a/b, \text{ we see now that}
1∣CD∣−1∣BD∣=1∣CD∣+∣BD∣is equivalent tox2+x−1=0. \frac{1}{|CD|} - \frac{1}{|BD|} = \frac{1}{|CD| + |BD|} \quad \text{is equivalent to} \quad x^2 + x - 1 = 0.

Because AA is not on BCBC, the triangle inequality implies 0<a<2b0 < a < 2b, hence 0<x<20 < x < 2. Therefore, 0≠(x−2)(x+1)0 \neq (x-2)(x+1) and so x2+x−1=0x^2+x-1=0 if and only if
0=(x2+x−1)(x−2)(x+1)=x4−4x2−x+2. 0 = (x^2+x-1)(x-2)(x+1) = x^4 - 4x^2 - x + 2.

The Cosine Rule gives a2=2b2−2b2cos⁡(α)a^2 = 2b^2 - 2b^2 \cos(\alpha) and b2=a2+b2−2abcos⁡(β)b^2 = a^2 + b^2 - 2ab \cos(\beta), from which we obtain 2cos⁡(α)=2−x22 \cos(\alpha) = 2 - x^2 and 2cos⁡(β)=x2 \cos(\beta) = x. Therefore, the equation (x2−2)2−2=x(x^2 - 2)^2 - 2 = x is equivalent to 4cos⁡2(α)−2=2cos⁡(β)4 \cos^2(\alpha) - 2 = 2 \cos(\beta). Because 2cos⁡2(α)−1=cos⁡(2α)2 \cos^2(\alpha) - 1 = \cos(2\alpha), the above is equivalent to cos⁡(2α)=cos⁡(β)\cos(2\alpha) = \cos(\beta).
We would like to conclude that β=2α\beta = 2\alpha. This follows as soon as we exclude that 360∘−2α=β360^\circ - 2\alpha = \beta. But we know that α+2β=180∘\alpha + 2\beta = 180^\circ, hence 360∘−2α=4β360^\circ - 2\alpha = 4\beta. Therefore, 360∘−2α=β360^\circ - 2\alpha = \beta can only happen if β=0\beta = 0, which is excluded by the assumption that AA is not on BCBC. Therefore, we have shown that
1∣CD∣−1∣BD∣=1∣CD∣+∣BD∣is equivalent toβ=2α. \frac{1}{|CD|} - \frac{1}{|BD|} = \frac{1}{|CD| + |BD|} \quad \text{is equivalent to} \quad \beta = 2\alpha.
From α+2β=180∘\alpha + 2\beta = 180^\circ we easily obtain that β=2α\beta = 2\alpha if and only if α=36∘\alpha = 36^\circ.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.