Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 154 of 400 #1634 of 2444

Problem 1634

National Olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.2 Prove it Autumn Tournament · Bulgaria

Let p,qp, q be coprime integers, such that pq1\frac{p}{q} \le 1. For which p,qp, q, there exist even integers b1,b2,,bnb_1, b_2, \dots, b_n, such that
pq=1b1+1b2+1b3+? \frac{p}{q} = \frac{1}{b_1 + \frac{1}{b_2 + \frac{1}{b_3 + \dots}}}?

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Next problem →

Official solution

Set bi=2ib_i = 2\ell_i, all of them are even. At the first step we get the pairs
A:={(p,q):(p,q)=(1,21),1Z.(1)}. A := \{(p, q) : (p, q) = (1, 2\ell_1), \ell_1 \in \mathbb{Z}. \quad (1)\}.
At each subsequent step we expand the set AA by adding additional pairs (p,q)(p', q')
defined as
{(p,q):pq=12+pq,(p,q)A,Z}(2). \left\{ (p', q') : \frac{p'}{q'} = \frac{1}{2\ell + \frac{p}{q}}, (p, q) \in A, \ell \in \mathbb{Z} \right\} \quad (2).
By (2) we obtain
p=q;q=2q+p(3) p' = q; \quad q' = 2\ell q + p \quad (3)
So, if (p,q)(p, q) is obtained in the process of expanding, we also add (p,q)(p', q') defined as in (3). We want to characterize all pairs (p,q)(p, q) that can be obtained in this way. Note that if (p,q)=1(p, q) = 1, then from (3) follows (p,q)=1(p', q') = 1. Let us prove that the set of pairs (p,q)(p, q) in question is
A:={(p,q):p,qZ{0},p<q,(p,q)=1, one of p,q is even, the other is odd.} A := \{(p, q) : p, q \in \mathbb{Z} \setminus \{0\}, |p| < |q|, (p, q) = 1, \text{ one of } p, q \text{ is even, the other is odd.}\}
Note that we ruled out p=q|p| = |q| because pq=±1\frac{p}{q} = \pm 1 cannot be represented as wanted. The transformation described in (3) shows that we cannot step outside AA. To prove that all pairs in AA can be generated, we follow a standard procedure - take (p,q)A(p', q') \in A and search for (p,q)A(p, q) \in A that generates (p,q)(p', q') via (3), but we want (p,q)(p, q) be "less" than (p,q)(p', q'). That's how induction works. Solving (3) with respect to (p,q)(p, q) yields
p=q2p;q=p(4) p = q' - 2\ell p'; \quad q = p' \quad (4)
Clearly, we can choose Z\ell \in \mathbb{Z} such that q2p<p|q' - 2\ell p'| < |p'| (since p0p' \neq 0). Indeed, consider the points q2pq' - 2\ell p' where \ell runs through all integers. These points are at a distance 2p2p' apart, and none of them hits pp' because (p,q)=1(p', q') = 1. Hence, the point closest to 0 has magnitude less than pp'. So, we started from (p,q)A(p', q') \in A, and found (p,q)A(p, q) \in A that generates (p,q)(p', q') and moreover, q=p,p<p<qq = p', |p| < |p'| < |q'|. Apparently (p,q)(p, q) is "less" than (p,q)(p', q'), that is, p<p,q<q|p| < |p'|, |q| < |q'|. Now, induction does the job. Obviously, (1,2),(1,2),(1,2),(1,2)(1, 2), (-1, 2), (1, -2), (-1, -2) can be represented as continued fractions satisfying the statement. Assume that all (p,q)A(p, q) \in A with pN,qN|p| \le N, |q| \le N can be represented like that. Take (p,q)A,q=N+1(p', q') \in A, |q'| = N + 1. As just shown, there exists (p,q)A,p<qN(p, q) \in A, |p| < |q| \le N such that
pq=12+pq. \frac{p'}{q'} = \frac{1}{2\ell + \frac{p}{q}}.
The induction step is complete and the result follows. Note that it also follows that the representation of numbers in AA as continued fractions like that is unique. Indeed, take a pair (p,q)A(p', q') \in A. The pair (p,q)A(p, q) \in A that satisfies (4) and p<p|p| < |p'| is determined uniquely. Uniqueness follows easily.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty, ordering) added by this project.