Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 19 of 400 #1019 of 1964

Problem 1019

National olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.0 Prove it

## Task 1 - 110821

Prove the following statement:

If pp is a prime number greater than 3, then exactly one of the numbers p1,p+1p-1, p+1 is divisible by 6.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

## Preliminary Considerations:

Definition of Prime Number: A prime number is a number that is only divisible by 1 and itself.

Divisibility Theorem: If a number is divisible by 2 and by 3, then it is also divisible by 6.

Therefore, one must prove that either p1p-1 or p+1p+1 is divisible by 2 and by 3 to prove that either p1p-1 or p+1p+1 is divisible by 6.

Divisibility by 2:

pp is a prime number and greater than 3, so it cannot be divisible by 2, as a prime number is only divisible by 1 and itself. Since every second number is divisible by 2, the neighboring numbers of pp (p1p-1 and p+1p+1) must both be divisible by 2.

Divisibility by 3:

pp cannot be divisible by 3 according to the definition of prime numbers (see above), since pp is a prime number. If we assume that p1p-1 is not divisible by 3, then p+1p+1 must be divisible by 3, as every third number is divisible by 3. This also applies to p1p-1 if p+1p+1 is not divisible by 3. Therefore, either p1p-1 or p+1p+1 is divisible by 3.

\Rightarrow Since p1p-1 and p+1p+1 are divisible by 2 and either p1p-1 or p+1p+1 is divisible by 3, either p1p-1 or p+1p+1 is divisible by 6.

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.