Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 225 of 400 #1225 of 1964

Problem 1225

National olympiad, first round
Geometry Difficulty 6.3 Prove it

Let's prove that in the plane, a square can be circumscribed around every bounded, convex shape.

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Translate the above text into English, please keep the original text's line breaks and format, and output the translation result directly.

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Prove that in the plane, a square can be circumscribed around every bounded, convex shape.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

A tangent line of a convex shape is a line that has a common point with the shape, and all points of the shape lie on one side of the line. Any bounded, convex shape has a tangent line in any direction, and there are two such lines.

Let's take a point OO in the plane and a vector OA=i\overrightarrow{O A}=i. Define the following function d(α)d(\alpha). Rotate OA\overrightarrow{O A} by an angle (positive or negative, according to the sign of α\alpha) to get OB\overrightarrow{O B}. Draw the two tangent lines of the shape that are parallel to OB\overrightarrow{O B}. The distance between these tangent lines is denoted by d(α)d(\alpha).

!

By the definition of the function d(α)d(\alpha), we have d(α)=d(α+π)d(\alpha)=d(\alpha+\pi). It can be shown that the function d(α)d(\alpha) is continuous, and therefore the function

f(α)=d(α)d(α+π2) f(\alpha)=d(\alpha)-d\left(\alpha+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)

is also continuous.

f(0)=d(0)d(π2),f(π2)=d(π2)d(π)==d(π2)d(0) \begin{aligned} f(0) & =d(0)-d\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right), \quad f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=d\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)-d(\pi)= \\ & =d\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)-d(0) \end{aligned}

If f(0)=f(π2)=0f(0)=f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=0, that is, d(0)=d(π2)d(0)=d\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right), then the distances of the tangent lines corresponding to 0 and π2\frac{\pi}{2} radians are equal, and therefore these lines form a square.

If f(0)f(π2)f(0) \neq f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right), then due to (1), the function values corresponding to 0 and π2\frac{\pi}{2} have opposite signs, and thus there exists an angle 0<α0<π20<\alpha_{0}<\frac{\pi}{2} such that f(α0)=0f\left(\alpha_{0}\right)=0. For this α0\alpha_{0}, d(α0)=d(α0+π2)d\left(\alpha_{0}\right)=d\left(\alpha_{0}+\frac{\pi}{2}\right), so the tangent lines in the direction of α0\alpha_{0} and the perpendicular direction form a square.

Csaba Kecskés (Budapest, Móricz Zs. Gymnasium, 4th grade)

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.