Let f and g be two nonzero polynomials with integer coefficients and degf>degg. Suppose that for infinitely many primes p the polynomial pf+g has a rational root. Prove that f has a rational root.
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Official solution
1. Define the Polynomials and Rational Roots: Let f(x)=anxn+⋯+a0 and g(x)=bmxm+⋯+b0. We are given that for infinitely many primes p, the polynomial pf+g has a rational root. Let rp=vpup be a rational root of pf+g for some coprime integers up and vp.
2. Boundedness of Rational Roots: Since degg<degf, there exists a constant C such that for ∣x∣≥C, f(x)g(x)<0.01. Given pf(rp)+g(rp)=0, we have f(rp)g(rp)=p. Since p>0.01, it follows that ∣rp∣<C.
3. Rational Root Theorem Application: By the Rational Root Theorem, vp∣pan and up∣pa0+b0. Therefore, for each valid p, one of the following must hold: - p∣vp (call such primes peasants), or - vp∣an (call such primes rebels).
4. Infinitely Many Peasant Primes: Suppose finitely many valid p are peasants. Let S be the set of all valid rebel primes p. Since vp∣an, there are finitely many possible values for vp. For each vp, there are finitely many possible values for up because ∣rp∣=vpup is bounded. Thus, there are finitely many possible values for rp over all p∈S. This contradicts the infinitude of valid p since p=−f(rp)g(rp).
5. Case Analysis: Consider a sufficiently large peasant prime p such that p is larger than all ai and bi. Since rp=vpup, we have: (pf+g)(rp)=i=0∑npai(vpup)i+j=0∑mbj(vpup)j=0 Multiplying through by vpn gives: i=0∑npaiupivpn−i+j=0∑mbjupjvpn−j=0(♡) Taking (♡)modp2, since p∣vp, the first term reduces to panupnmodp2, and the second term reduces to bmupmvpn−mmodp2.
6. **Case 1: n≥m+2:** bmupmvpn−m≡0(modp2) Thus, panupn≡0(modp2), implying anupn≡0(modp). Since p>an and gcd(up,vp)=1, this is impossible.
7. **Case 2: n=m+1:** panupn+bn−1upn−1vp≡0(modp2) Since p∤up, we can divide and reduce: anup+bn−1(pvp)≡0(modp) Let dp=pvp. Then: dpup≡−anbn−1(modp) Hence, dpup=C+anpZp for some integer Zp. Since rp=vpup=p1dpup, we have: rp=pC+anZp Since ∣rp∣ is bounded, there exists some integer Z such that Zp=Z for infinitely many p. Thus: rp=pC+anZ As p→∞, rp→anZ, a fixed rational number.
8. Contradiction: Since p=−f(rp)g(rp) and rp→anZ, but f has no rational roots, we have f(anZ)=0. Thus: −f(rp)g(rp)→−f(anZ)g(anZ) This is a fixed number, contradicting the infinitude of valid p.
Therefore, f must have a rational root.
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Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
licensed Apache-2.0.
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