Solution: Let k be the circle with center D and radius 1 . Consider the inversion with respect to the circle k and denote by A∗,B∗,C∗,A1∗,B1∗, and C1∗ the images of A,B,C,A1,B1, and C1, respectively.
The point C1∗ belongs to the line A∗B∗, because the circumcircle of △ADB is mapped to a line. Simiarly, B1∗∈B∗C∗ and A1∗∈A∗B∗. D belongs to the line A∗A1∗ and AD=A∗D1. Using the similar reasoning we get that D is the intersection of A∗A1∗,B∗B1∗, and C∗C1∗ and the desired equality now becomes equivalent to
A∗A1∗A1∗D+B∗B1∗B1∗D+C∗C1∗C1∗D=1.
Notice that A∗A1∗A1∗D=S△B∗C∗A∗S△B∗C∗D. Analogous relations for the remaining two fractions on the left-hand side of (??) further transform our claim to:
S△A∗B∗C∗S△B∗C∗D+S△A∗B∗C∗S△C∗A∗D+S△A∗B∗C∗S△A∗B∗D=1,
which is obviously true.