To show that Fmn−1−Fn−1m is divisible by Fn2 for all m≥1 and n>1, we will use induction on m.
1. **Base Case: m=1**
For m=1, we need to show that Fn2∣Fn−1−Fn−1.
Fn−1−Fn−1=0
Clearly, Fn2∣0. Thus, the base case holds.
2. Inductive Step:
Assume that the statement holds for m=k, i.e.,
Fn2∣Fkn−1−Fn−1k
We need to show that the statement holds for m=k+1, i.e.,
Fn2∣F(k+1)n−1−Fn−1k+1
Using the property of Fibonacci numbers Fa+b=FaFb+1+Fa−1Fb, we can write:
F(k+1)n−1=Fkn+n−1=Fkn−1Fn+1+Fkn−2Fn
By the induction hypothesis, we know that Fn2∣Fkn−1−Fn−1k. Therefore, we can write:
Fkn−1≡Fn−1k(modFn2)
Substituting this into the expression for F(k+1)n−1:
F(k+1)n−1=Fkn−1Fn+1+Fkn−2Fn
≡Fn−1kFn+1+Fkn−2Fn(modFn2)
We also know that Fkn−2≡Fkn−Fkn−1(modFn). Since Fn∣Fkn, we have:
Fkn−2≡−Fkn−1(modFn)
Substituting this back, we get:
F(k+1)n−1≡Fn−1kFn+1−Fn−1kFn(modFn2)
≡Fn−1k(Fn+1−Fn)(modFn2)
Using the identity Fn+1=Fn+Fn−1, we get:
F(k+1)n−1≡Fn−1k(Fn+Fn−1−Fn)(modFn2)
≡Fn−1kFn−1(modFn2)
≡Fn−1k+1(modFn2)
Therefore,
Fn2∣F(k+1)n−1−Fn−1k+1
This completes the inductive step.
By induction, we have shown that Fmn−1−Fn−1m is divisible by Fn2 for all m≥1 and n>1.
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