Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 7 / 268 of 300 #1668 of 1964

Problem 1668

National olympiad second round; IMO P1/P4
Combinatorics Difficulty 7.7 Prove it

a) Prove that there are no one-to-one (injective) functions f:NN{0}f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}\cup \{0\} such that
f(mn)=f(m)+f(n),  m,nN. f(mn) = f(m)+f(n) , \ \forall \ m,n \in \mathbb{N}.

b) Prove that for all positive integers kk there exist one-to-one functions f:{1,2,,k}N{0}f: \{1,2,\ldots,k\}\to\mathbb{N}\cup \{0\} such that f(mn)=f(m)+f(n)f(mn) = f(m)+f(n) for all m,n{1,2,,k}m,n\in \{1,2,\ldots,k\} with mnkmn\leq k.

[i]Mihai Baluna[/i]

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

### Part (a)

We need to prove that there are no injective functions f:NN{0} f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \cup \{0\} such that
f(mn)=f(m)+f(n)m,nN. f(mn) = f(m) + f(n) \quad \forall \, m,n \in \mathbb{N}.

1. Initial Conditions:
- Let m=1 m = 1 . Then f(mn)=f(n) f(mn) = f(n) implies f(1n)=f(1)+f(n) f(1 \cdot n) = f(1) + f(n) . Hence, f(n)=f(1)+f(n) f(n) = f(1) + f(n) .
- This implies f(1)=0 f(1) = 0 .

2. Prime Powers:
- For any prime p p and non-negative integer a a , we have:
f(pa)=af(p). f(p^a) = af(p).
- This follows by induction. For a=1 a = 1 , it is trivially true. Assume it holds for a a , then:
f(pa+1)=f(ppa)=f(p)+f(pa)=f(p)+af(p)=(a+1)f(p). f(p^{a+1}) = f(p \cdot p^a) = f(p) + f(p^a) = f(p) + af(p) = (a+1)f(p).

3. Distinct Primes:
- For pairwise distinct primes p1,p2,,pk p_1, p_2, \ldots, p_k and non-negative integers a1,a2,,ak a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_k , we have:
f(p1a1p2a2pkak)=a1f(p1)+a2f(p2)++akf(pk). f(p_1^{a_1} p_2^{a_2} \cdots p_k^{a_k}) = a_1 f(p_1) + a_2 f(p_2) + \cdots + a_k f(p_k).
- This follows from the multiplicative property of f f and the fact that f f is additive over products of distinct primes.

4. Contradiction:
- Assume f f is injective. Then f(2)0 f(2) \neq 0 and f(3)0 f(3) \neq 0 .
- Consider f(2f(3)) f(2^{f(3)}) and f(3f(2)) f(3^{f(2)}) :
f(2f(3))=f(2)f(3)andf(3f(2))=f(3)f(2). f(2^{f(3)}) = f(2) \cdot f(3) \quad \text{and} \quad f(3^{f(2)}) = f(3) \cdot f(2).
- Since f f is injective, 2f(3)3f(2) 2^{f(3)} \neq 3^{f(2)} . However, f(2f(3))=f(3f(2)) f(2^{f(3)}) = f(3^{f(2)}) implies 2f(3)=3f(2) 2^{f(3)} = 3^{f(2)} , which is a contradiction.

Thus, no such injective function f f exists.

\blacksquare

### Part (b)

We need to prove that for all positive integers k k , there exist injective functions f:{1,2,,k}N{0} f: \{1, 2, \ldots, k\} \to \mathbb{N} \cup \{0\} such that f(mn)=f(m)+f(n) f(mn) = f(m) + f(n) for all m,n{1,2,,k} m, n \in \{1, 2, \ldots, k\} with mnk mn \leq k .

1. **Choice of Prime p p :**
- Let k k be given, and let p p be a prime greater than all the exponents appearing in the prime decompositions of the numbers 1,2,,k 1, 2, \ldots, k .

2. Function Definition:
- Define f(1)=0 f(1) = 0 .
- Let p1,p2,,pm p_1, p_2, \ldots, p_m be the primes not greater than k k . Thus, each of the numbers 2,3,,k 2, 3, \ldots, k only decomposes with the pi p_i 's.
- For each i i , let f(pi)=pi f(p_i) = p^i .

3. Non-prime Numbers:
- For all non-primes tk t \leq k , define f(t) f(t) using the property:
f(p1a1p2a2pmam)=a1f(p1)+a2f(p2)++amf(pm). f(p_1^{a_1} p_2^{a_2} \cdots p_m^{a_m}) = a_1 f(p_1) + a_2 f(p_2) + \cdots + a_m f(p_m).

4. Verification:
- It is clear that f(mn)=f(m)+f(n) f(mn) = f(m) + f(n) for all m,n m, n such that mnk mn \leq k .
- Using the uniqueness of the decomposition in base p p , the equality f(t)=f(t) f(t) = f(t') is equivalent to the fact that t t and t t' have the same prime decompositions, which implies t=t t = t' . Hence, f f is injective.

\blacksquare

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.