Note: This problem is from the 2007 Balkan Mathematical Olympiad, and it is almost identical to the 20th inequality in reference [3]: For positive real numbers x,y,z satisfying the relation x+y+z⩾xy+xz+yz, prove that 1+x+y1+1+y+z1+1+z+x1⩽1.
For the second problem: Let x,y,z be non-negative numbers, and x2+y2+z2=3, prove that x2+y+zx+y2+z+xy+z2+x+yz⩽3.
This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark
yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.
Official solution
Proof: By the local Cauchy inequality, we have: (x2+y+z)(1+y+z)⩾(x+y+z)2. Therefore, x2+y+z1⩽x+y+z1+y+z, and similarly, we can obtain the other two inequalities. Also, by the Cauchy inequality, 3(x2+y2+z2)⩾(x+y+z)2 and x2+y2+z2=3 imply: x2+y2+z2⩾x+y+z. Therefore, we need to prove x+y+zx1+y+z+y1+z+x+z1+x+y⩽3.
By the Cauchy inequality, we get x1+y+z+y1+z+x+z1+x+y⩽x+y+zx+y+z+2xy+2xz+2yz⩽x+y+zx2+y2+z2+2xy+2xz+2yz=(x+y+z)3, i.e., x+y+zx1+y+z+y1+z+x+z1+x+y⩽x+y+z⩽x2+y2+z2=3
Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
licensed Apache-2.0.
Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added
by this site.