Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 8 / 61 of 180 #1761 of 1964

Problem 1761

IMO Shortlist mid-range; USAMO P2/P5
Number theory Difficulty 8.1 Prove it

Let aa, bb be positive integers such that bn+nb^n+n is a multiple of an+na^n+n for all positive integers nn. Prove that a=ba=b.

[i]Proposed by Mohsen Jamali, Iran[/i]

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

1. Assume for contradiction: Suppose ab a \neq b . Then, ba b - a has finitely many prime divisors.
2. Lemma I: There exists an odd prime p>b>a p > b > a such that 4ap+p 4 \nmid a^p + p and gcd(ap+p,ba)2 \gcd(a^p + p, b - a) \leq 2 .

Proof of Lemma I:
- Let p p be an odd prime. If a a is even and p p is odd, then 4ap+p 4 \nmid a^p + p .
- If a±1(mod4) a \equiv \pm 1 \pmod{4} , choose pa(mod4) p \equiv a \pmod{4} . Thus, there exists an odd prime p p for which 4ap+p 4 \nmid a^p + p .
- Now, we prove the second part of Lemma I. Let q q be an odd prime divisor of ba b - a . For all q q , if a1(modq) a \equiv 1 \pmod{q} , let p1(modq) p \equiv 1 \pmod{q} , then ap+p2(modq) a^p + p \equiv 2 \pmod{q} .
- Otherwise, if a≢1(modq) a \not\equiv 1 \pmod{q} , let p1(modq) p \equiv -1 \pmod{q} , so ap+pap1(modq) a^p + p \equiv a^p - 1 \pmod{q} .
- Assume for contradiction that qap1 q \mid a^p - 1 . Then, either ordq(a)=1 \text{ord}_q(a) = 1 or ordq(a)=p \text{ord}_q(a) = p . In the former case, this means a1(modq) a \equiv 1 \pmod{q} , contradiction. In the latter case, this gives us q1(modp) q \equiv 1 \pmod{p} , contradiction, since p>q p > q , as p1(modq) p \equiv -1 \pmod{q} .
- Hence, by Dirichlet's Theorem of Arithmetic Progression together with the Chinese Remainder Theorem, we find that there exists an odd prime p>b>a p > b > a such that gcd(ap+p,ba) \gcd(a^p + p, b - a) has no prime factors other than possibly 2 2 , and since we can choose p p such that 4ap+p 4 \nmid a^p + p , it follows that gcd(ap+p,ba)2 \gcd(a^p + p, b - a) \leq 2 , as desired. \blacksquare

3. Using Lemma I: Let n=p n = p , where p p is an odd prime which satisfies the conditions in Lemma I, so we have ap+pbpap a^p + p \mid b^p - a^p .
4. Prime divisor analysis: Let q q be a prime divisor of ap+p a^p + p . If qb q \mid b , then qa q \mid a , so qp q \mid p , which means that q=p q = p . However, p>a p > a , therefore we must have qa,b q \nmid a, b .
5. Order analysis: Then, q(ba1)p1 q \mid (ba^{-1})^p - 1 , so ordq(ba1)=1 \text{ord}_q(ba^{-1}) = 1 or ordq(ba1)=p \text{ord}_q(ba^{-1}) = p . In the former case, we obtain qba q \mid b - a , however, since gcd(ap+p,ba)2 \gcd(a^p + p, b - a) \leq 2 , this implies q=2 q = 2 . In the latter case, this implies q1(modp) q \equiv 1 \pmod{p} , so for all primes qap+p q \mid a^p + p , either q=2 q = 2 or q1(modp) q \equiv 1 \pmod{p} , and also 4ap+p 4 \nmid a^p + p , hence we must have either ap+p1(modp) a^p + p \equiv 1 \pmod{p} or ap+p2(modp) a^p + p \equiv 2 \pmod{p} , or, equivalently, a1(modp) a \equiv 1 \pmod{p} or a2(modp) a \equiv 2 \pmod{p} . Since p>b>a p > b > a , this is only possible if a=1 a = 1 or a=2 a = 2 .

6. Case analysis:
- If a=1 a = 1 , then if any prime qb q \mid b , setting n=q1 n = q - 1 , we obtain qbq1+q11(modq) q \mid b^{q - 1} + q - 1 \equiv -1 \pmod{q} , contradiction. Hence, b b cannot have any prime divisors, so b=1 b = 1 .
- If a=2 a = 2 , then ap+p a^p + p is odd, so gcd(ap+p,ba)=gcd(2p+p,b2)=1 \gcd(a^p + p, b - a) = \gcd(2^p + p, b - 2) = 1 . Then, we have ap+p=2p+pbpap=bp2p a^p + p = 2^p + p \mid b^p - a^p = b^p - 2^p . Let q q be a prime divisor of 2p+p 2^p + p . Note that q q must be odd. If qb q \mid b , then q2 q \mid 2 , so q=2 q = 2 , contradiction. As a result, qb q \nmid b , then q(b21)p1 q \mid (b \cdot 2^{-1})^p - 1 , therefore ordq(b21)=1 \text{ord}_q(b \cdot 2^{-1}) = 1 or ordq(b21)=p \text{ord}_q(b \cdot 2^{-1}) = p . In the former case, this gives us qb2 q \mid b - 2 , but this is impossible since gcd(2p+p,b2)=1 \gcd(2^p + p, b - 2) = 1 . In the latter case, this implies q1(modp) q \equiv 1 \pmod{p} , so for all primes q2p+p q \mid 2^p + p , q1(modp) q \equiv 1 \pmod{p} , so this gives us 2p+p1(modp) 2^p + p \equiv 1 \pmod{p} , but we also have 2p+p2(modp) 2^p + p \equiv 2 \pmod{p} , contradiction.

7. Conclusion: Then, the initial assumption that ba b \neq a must be wrong, so we find that b=a b = a .

\blacksquare

The final answer is a=b \boxed{ a = b } .

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.