First solution (by Yassine Hamdi) Consider a group of m girls and n boys and count in two ways the number of ways to choose a subgroup of n people. On the one hand, this number is clearly (nm+n). On the other hand, choosing this subgroup amounts to first choosing the number k of girls who will be in it (0⩽k⩽m), then choosing the girls ((km) choices), then the boys ((n−kn) choices). Thus:
(mm+n)=k=0∑m(km)(n−kn)=k=0∑m(km)(kn)
where we used the fact that (n−kn)=(kn) for the second equality.
Second solution (by Hizir Nuhoglu) Consider a rectangle of length n and width m: We are interested in the paths starting from the bottom left vertex (coordinates (0,0)) and
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ending at the top right (coordinates (n,m)) by making only unit steps to the right or up. According to a TD exercise, their number is (mm+n). On the other hand, any of these paths crosses a point with coordinates (k,m−k) with 0⩽k⩽m (points on the red diagonal in the figure). The number of paths from (0,0) to (k,m−k) is (km), and the number of paths from (k,m−k) to (n,m) is (n−kn)=(kn). Thus
(mm+n)=k=0∑m(km)(kn)
Third solution and generalization (by Nicolas Heutte) If we consider m+1 numbers in a row a0,a1,…,am and form a "descending" Pascal's triangle from this original row, the m+1-th row will contain a single number which is
a0(0m)+a1(1m)+⋯+⋯am(mm)
We perform this operation starting from the m+1 first numbers of the n-th row of Pascal's triangle, which are (0n),(1n),…,(mn). We obtain that the number on the n+m−1-th row in the m-th place is
k=0∑m(km)(kn)
By construction of Pascal's triangle, this number is also (mm+n), which concludes.
It is possible to generalize this formula: let u⩾0 be an integer such that u⩽n−m+2. Then, by performing the previous reasoning, but starting from the m+1 consecutive numbers from the u-th number of the n-th row of Pascal's triangle, we obtain:
k=0∑m(km)(k+un)=(m+um+n)
Fourth solution (by induction) We recall that (nm)=0 if n>m or if n<0. We reason by induction on m+n. More precisely, for an integer j⩾0, let Pj be the property
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FIGURE 1 - Interlude: the Sierpinski triangle
"For all integers m,n⩾0 such that m+n=j, we have:
k⩾0∑(kn)(km)=(mm+n) and k⩾0∑(k−1n)(km)=(m−1m+n)′′
Initialization: P0 is true.
Hereditary: Suppose Pj is true and prove Pj+1. Let m,n⩾0 be integers such that m+n=j+1. We write, using Pascal's relation many times:
k⩾0∑(kn)(km)=k⩾0∑((kn−1)+(k−1n−1))(km)=k⩾0∑(kn−1)(km)+k⩾0∑(k−1n−1)(km)=(mm+n−1)+(m−1m+n−1)=(mm+n)
where we used the induction hypothesis to write the penultimate equality (which is valid, as m+n−1=j).
Similarly, we have:
k⩾0∑(k−1n)(km)=k⩾0∑(k−1n)((km−1)+(k−1m−1))=k⩾0∑(k−1n)(km−1)+k⩾0∑(k−1n)(k−1m−1)=(m−2m+n−1)+(m−1m+n−1)=(m−1m+n)
where we used the induction hypothesis to write the penultimate equality (which is valid, as m+n−1=j)