Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 147 of 400 #1147 of 1964

Problem 1147

National olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.2 Prove it

Does there exist a positive integer NN which is divisible by at least 2024 distinct primes and whose positive divisors 1=d1<d2<<dk=N1=d_{1}<d_{2}<\ldots<d_{k}=N are such that the number

d2d1+d3d2++dkdk1 \frac{d_{2}}{d_{1}}+\frac{d_{3}}{d_{2}}+\ldots+\frac{d_{k}}{d_{k-1}}

is an integer?

Answer: Yes.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

For arbitrary positive integer NN, we will write f(N)=d2d1+d3d2++dkdk1f(N)=\frac{d_{2}}{d_{1}}+\frac{d_{3}}{d_{2}}+\ldots+\frac{d_{k}}{d_{k-1}} where 1=d1<d2<<dk=N1=d_{1}<d_{2}<\ldots<d_{k}=N are the divisors of NN in the ascending order. We claim that f(N)f(N) is an integer if and only if NN is a prime power (i.e., N=pαN=p^{\alpha} for some prime pp and positive integer α\alpha).

- Base case: If NN is a prime power, say N=pαN=p^{\alpha}, then the divisors of NN are 1,p,p2,,pα1, p, p^2, \ldots, p^{\alpha}. Hence, f(N)=p+p++p=αpf(N)=p+p+\ldots+p=\alpha p, which is an integer.
- Induction step: Assume that the claim holds for MM prime divisors. Let NN be a positive integer with exactly MM prime divisors such that f(N)f(N) is an integer. Pick a prime p>Np>N. We claim that there is some choice of α\alpha such that f(Npα)f\left(N \cdot p^{\alpha}\right) is an integer. Note that since p>Np>N, the divisors of NpαN \cdot p^{\alpha} in the ascending order are

d1,d2,,dkpd1,pd2,,pdkpαd1,pαd2,,pαdk \begin{aligned} & d_{1}, d_{2}, \ldots, d_{k} \\ & p d_{1}, p d_{2}, \ldots, p d_{k} \\ & \ldots \ldots \ldots \ldots \ldots \ldots \ldots \\ & p^{\alpha} d_{1}, p^{\alpha} d_{2}, \ldots, p^{\alpha} d_{k} \end{aligned}

Hence we get that

f(Npα)=(α+1)f(N)+αpd1dk f\left(N \cdot p^{\alpha}\right)=(\alpha+1) f(N)+\alpha \cdot \frac{p d_{1}}{d_{k}}

The term (α+1)f(N)(\alpha+1) f(N) is an integer by the choice of NN. If we pick α=N\alpha=N then αpd1dk=NpN=p\alpha \cdot \frac{p d_{1}}{d_{k}}=N \cdot \frac{p}{N}=p is an integer, too. Thus f(Npα)f\left(N \cdot p^{\alpha}\right) is an integer and we are done.

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.