Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 6 / 10 of 400 #1010 of 1964

Problem 1010

National olympiad, first round
Number theory Difficulty 6.0 Prove it

Two positive integers, aa and bb, have the sum of their greatest common divisor and least common multiple equal to (a+b)(a+b). Prove that in this case, one of the numbers aa and bb is divisible by the other.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

I. solution. The product of the greatest common divisor and the least common multiple of two numbers is equal to the product of the two numbers:

(a;b)[a;b]=ab (a ; b) \cdot[a ; b]=a \cdot b

Let's denote the greatest common divisor of aa and bb by dd. According to the problem, d+[a;b]=a+bd+[a ; b]=a+b. Using the mentioned relationship, we get the following equation:

d+abd=a+b d+\frac{a \cdot b}{d}=a+b

After rearranging, we can factorize it as follows:

d2(a+b)d+ab=(da)(db)=0 d^{2}-(a+b) \cdot d+a \cdot b=(d-a)(d-b)=0

If d=ad=a, that is, the greatest common divisor is equal to aa, then bb is a multiple of aa. If d=bd=b, then aa is a multiple of bb. This proves the statement of the problem.

II. solution. Let a=da=d \cdot \ell and b=dkb=d \cdot k, where kk and \ell are coprime. Thus, (a;b)=d(a ; b)=d and [a;b]=dk[a ; b]=d \cdot k \cdot \ell. The equation is: d+dk=d+dkd+d \cdot k \cdot \ell=d \cdot \ell+d \cdot k. Clearly, d0d \neq 0, so we can divide by it:

1+k=+k,kk+1=0,(k1)(1)=0 1+k \cdot \ell=\ell+k, \quad k \cdot \ell-\ell-k+1=0, \quad(k-1)(\ell-1)=0

from which k=1k=1 or =1\ell=1 follows. In both cases, the greatest common divisor is equal to one of the given numbers, and in this case, this number is a divisor of the other.

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.