1. **Case 1: a=0**
- Given that f1(x),f2(x),…,fn(x) are additive functions, we know that for every x∈R, f1(x)f2(x)⋯fn(x)=axn.
- Since a=0, none of the fk(1) are zero. Therefore, a=∏k=1nfk(1).
- Define gk(x)=fk(1)fk(x). Then, we have:
k=1∏ngk(x)=f1(1)f2(1)⋯fn(1)f1(x)f2(x)⋯fn(x)=aaxn=xn
- Fix any α∈R. For any rational p, we have:
k=1∏ngk(pα)=(pα)n
- Both sides of the equation are polynomials in p. Since they agree for infinitely many values of p, they must be identical as polynomials. Therefore, for each k, gk(α)=α for all α∈R.
- This implies that fk(x)=fk(1)x for all k and x∈R. Let b=fi(1) for some i. Then fi(x)=bx.
2. **Case 2: a=0**
- Assume a=0. This means f1(x)f2(x)⋯fn(x)=0 for all x∈R.
- Suppose there exists some αi such that fi(αi)=0. Then, we can find rationals pi such that:
fk(i=1∑npiαi)=i=1∑npifk(αi)=0
- This would contradict the fact that ∏k=1nfk evaluated at ∑i=1npiαi is zero. Therefore, at least one of the fi's must be identically zero.
- For that i, we can take b=0 and fi(x)=0.
Conclusion:
In both cases, we have shown that there exists b∈R and i∈{1,2,…,n} such that fi(x)=bx for all x∈R.
The final answer is b∈R and i∈{1,2,…,n} such that fi(x)=bx