Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 7 / 282 of 300 #1682 of 1964

Problem 1682

National olympiad second round; IMO P1/P4
Algebra Difficulty 7.8 Prove it

Let aR a\in \mathbb{R} and f1(x),f2(x),,fn(x):RR f_1(x),f_2(x),\ldots,f_n(x): \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} are the additive functions such that for every xR x\in \mathbb{R} we have f1(x)f2(x)fn(x)=axn f_1(x)f_2(x) \cdots f_n(x) =ax^n . Show that there exists bR b\in \mathbb {R} and i{1,2,,n} i\in {\{1,2,\ldots,n}\} such that for every xR x\in \mathbb{R} we have fi(x)=bx f_i(x)=bx .

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

1. **Case 1: a0 a \neq 0 **

- Given that f1(x),f2(x),,fn(x) f_1(x), f_2(x), \ldots, f_n(x) are additive functions, we know that for every xR x \in \mathbb{R} , f1(x)f2(x)fn(x)=axn f_1(x) f_2(x) \cdots f_n(x) = ax^n .
- Since a0 a \neq 0 , none of the fk(1) f_k(1) are zero. Therefore, a=k=1nfk(1) a = \prod_{k=1}^n f_k(1) .
- Define gk(x)=fk(x)fk(1) g_k(x) = \frac{f_k(x)}{f_k(1)} . Then, we have:
k=1ngk(x)=f1(x)f2(x)fn(x)f1(1)f2(1)fn(1)=axna=xn \prod_{k=1}^n g_k(x) = \frac{f_1(x) f_2(x) \cdots f_n(x)}{f_1(1) f_2(1) \cdots f_n(1)} = \frac{ax^n}{a} = x^n
- Fix any αR \alpha \in \mathbb{R} . For any rational p p , we have:
k=1ngk(pα)=(pα)n \prod_{k=1}^n g_k(p\alpha) = (p\alpha)^n
- Both sides of the equation are polynomials in p p . Since they agree for infinitely many values of p p , they must be identical as polynomials. Therefore, for each k k , gk(α)=α g_k(\alpha) = \alpha for all αR \alpha \in \mathbb{R} .
- This implies that fk(x)=fk(1)x f_k(x) = f_k(1)x for all k k and xR x \in \mathbb{R} . Let b=fi(1) b = f_i(1) for some i i . Then fi(x)=bx f_i(x) = bx .

2. **Case 2: a=0 a = 0 **

- Assume a=0 a = 0 . This means f1(x)f2(x)fn(x)=0 f_1(x) f_2(x) \cdots f_n(x) = 0 for all xR x \in \mathbb{R} .
- Suppose there exists some αi \alpha_i such that fi(αi)0 f_i(\alpha_i) \neq 0 . Then, we can find rationals pi p_i such that:
fk(i=1npiαi)=i=1npifk(αi)0 f_k\left(\sum_{i=1}^n p_i \alpha_i\right) = \sum_{i=1}^n p_i f_k(\alpha_i) \neq 0
- This would contradict the fact that k=1nfk \prod_{k=1}^n f_k evaluated at i=1npiαi \sum_{i=1}^n p_i \alpha_i is zero. Therefore, at least one of the fi f_i 's must be identically zero.
- For that i i , we can take b=0 b = 0 and fi(x)=0 f_i(x) = 0 .

Conclusion:
In both cases, we have shown that there exists bR b \in \mathbb{R} and i{1,2,,n} i \in \{1, 2, \ldots, n\} such that fi(x)=bx f_i(x) = bx for all xR x \in \mathbb{R} .

The final answer is bR and i{1,2,,n} such that fi(x)=bx \boxed{b \in \mathbb{R} \text{ and } i \in \{1, 2, \ldots, n\} \text{ such that } f_i(x) = bx}

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.