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CEMC Euclid, 2013

Algebra Difficulty 4.2 AIME Prove it Canada

If 1cos⁡x−tan⁡x=3\dfrac{1}{\cos x}-\tan x=3, what is the numerical value of sin⁡x\sin x?
Determine all linear functions f(x)=ax+bf(x)=ax+b such that if g(x)=f−1(x)g(x)=f^{-1}(x) for all values of xx, then f(x)−g(x)=44f(x)-g(x)=44 for all values of xx. (Note: f−1f^{-1} is the inverse function of ff.)

Solution

Beginning with the given equation, we have 1 x - x amp; = 3 1 x - x x amp; = 3 1- x amp; = 3 x (since x 0 ) (1- x) 2 amp; = 9 2 x (squaring both sides) 1-2 x + 2 x amp; = 9(1- 2 x) 10 2 x - 2 x - 8 amp;= 0 5 2 x - x - 4 amp; = 0 (5 x + 4)( x-1) amp; = 0\text{1 x - x amp; = 3 1 x - x x amp; = 3 1- x amp; = 3 x (since x 0 ) (1- x) 2 amp; = 9 2 x (squaring both sides) 1-2 x + 2 x amp; = 9(1- 2 x) 10 2 x - 2 x - 8 amp;= 0 5 2 x - x - 4 amp; = 0 (5 x + 4)( x-1) amp; = 0} Therefore, sin⁡x=−45\sin x = -\dfrac{4}{5} or sin⁡x=1\sin x = 1.

If sin⁡x=1\sin x = 1, then cos⁡x=0\cos x = 0 and tan⁡x\tan x is undefined, which is inadmissible in the original equation.

Therefore, sin⁡x=−45\sin x = -\dfrac{4}{5}.

(We can check that if sin⁡x=−45\sin x = -\dfrac{4}{5}, then cos⁡x=±35\cos x = \pm\dfrac{3}{5} and the possibility that cos⁡x=35\cos x = \dfrac{3}{5} satisfies the original equation, since in this case 1cos⁡x=53\dfrac{1}{\cos x} = \dfrac{5}{3} and tan⁡x=−43\tan x = -\dfrac{4}{3} and the difference between these fractions is 3.)
Since f(x)=ax+bf(x)=ax+b, we can determine an expression for g(x)=f−1(x)g(x)=f^{-1}(x) by letting y=f(x)y=f(x) to obtain y=ax+by=ax+b. We then interchange xx and yy to obtain x=ay+bx=ay+b which we solve for yy to obtain ay=x−bay=x-b or y=xa−bay = \dfrac{x}{a} - \dfrac{b}{a}.

Therefore, f−1(x)=xa−baf^{-1}(x) = \dfrac{x}{a} - \dfrac{b}{a}.

Note that a≠0a \neq 0. (This makes sense since the function f(x)=bf(x)=b has a graph which is a horizontal line, and so cannot be invertible.)

Therefore, the equation f(x)−g(x)=44f(x)-g(x)=44 becomes (ax+b)−(xa−ba)=44(ax+b)-\left(\dfrac{x}{a} - \dfrac{b}{a}\right) = 44 or (a−1a)x+(b+ba)=44=0x+44\left(a-\dfrac{1}{a}\right)x + \left(b+\dfrac{b}{a}\right) = 44 = 0x+44, and this equation is true for all xx.

We can proceed in two ways.

Method #1: Comparing coefficients

Since the equation (a−1a)x+(b+ba)=0x+44\left(a-\dfrac{1}{a}\right)x + \left(b+\dfrac{b}{a}\right) = 0x+44 is true for all xx, then the coefficients of the linear expression on the left side must match the coefficients of the linear expression on the right side.

Therefore, a−1a=0a-\dfrac{1}{a} = 0 and b+ba=44b+\dfrac{b}{a} = 44.

From the first of these equations, we obtain a=1aa = \dfrac{1}{a} or a2=1a^2=1, which gives a=1a=1 or a=−1a=-1.

If a=1a=1, the equation b+ba=44b+\dfrac{b}{a} = 44 becomes b+b=44b+b=44, which gives b=22b=22.

If a=−1a=-1, the equation b+ba=44b+\dfrac{b}{a} = 44 becomes b−b=44b-b=44, which is not possible.

Therefore, we must have a=1a=1 and b=22b=22, and so f(x)=x+22f(x)=x+22.

Method #2: Trying specific values for xx

Since the equation (a−1a)x+(b+ba)=0x+44\left(a-\dfrac{1}{a}\right)x + \left(b+\dfrac{b}{a}\right) = 0x+44 is true for all values of xx, then it must be true for any specific values of xx that we choose.

Choosing x=0x=0, we obtain 0+(b+ba)=440+\left(b+\dfrac{b}{a}\right) = 44 or b+ba=44b+\dfrac{b}{a} = 44.

Choosing x=bx=b, we obtain (a−1a)b+(b+ba)=44\left(a-\dfrac{1}{a}\right)b + \left(b+\dfrac{b}{a}\right) = 44 or ab+b=44ab+b = 44.

We can rearrange the first of these equations to get ab+ba=44\dfrac{ab+b}{a}=44.

Using the second equation, we obtain 44a=44\dfrac{44}{a}=44 or a=1a=1.

Since a=1a=1, then ab+b=44ab+b=44 gives 2b=442b=44 or b=22b=22.

Thus, f(x)=x+22f(x)=x+22.

In summary, the only linear function ff for which the given equation is true for all xx is f(x)=x+22f(x)=x+22.

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