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Algebra Difficulty 6.2 National olympiad Prove it Iran

Function ff is said to generate function gg (and denote it by fgf \to g), if gg can be written as the composition of function ff with itself for several times; i.e., natural number kk exists for which fff=gf \circ f \circ \dots \circ f = g (kk times).
We want to explore some properties of this relation. For example, it can easily be shown that if fgf \to g and ghg \to h, then fhf \to h. (transitivity)

a) Show that two functions fg:RRf \neq g: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} exist for which fgf \to g and gfg \to f.

b) Prove that for each function f:RRf: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} there are a finite number of functions g:RRg: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} for which fgf \to g and gfg \to f.

c) Does a function g:RRg: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} exist such that the only function that generates it is itself?

d) Does there exist a function that generates functions x3x^3 and x5x^5?

e) Prove that if there exists a function that generates two linear polynomials PP and QQ, then there exists a linear polynomial that generates both PP and QQ.

Solution

a) Let
f(x)={2x=13x=21x=3xx{1,2,3}g(x)={3x=11x=22x=3xx{1,2,3} f(x) = \begin{cases} 2 & x = 1 \\ 3 & x = 2 \\ 1 & x = 3 \\ x & x \notin \{1, 2, 3\} \end{cases} \qquad g(x) = \begin{cases} 3 & x = 1 \\ 1 & x = 2 \\ 2 & x = 3 \\ x & x \notin \{1, 2, 3\} \end{cases}
It is easy to check that g2=fg^2 = f and f2=gf^2 = g.

b) Suppose gg is a function that fgf \to g and gfg \to f. It means that there are integers mm and nn such that fm=gf^m = g and gn=fg^n = f. So fmn=ff^{mn} = f and ff generates at most mn1mn - 1 functions. Therefore, there are only a finite number of functions gg.

c) Define g:RRg: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} as follows:
g(x)={x+1xZxxZ g(x) = \begin{cases} x + 1 & x \in \mathbb{Z} \\ x & x \notin \mathbb{Z} \end{cases}
Let ff be a real function such that fgf \to g (fk=gf^k = g). Note that gg is bijective, and hence ff is bijective too. If f(z0)Zf(z_0) \notin \mathbb{Z} for some z0Zz_0 \in \mathbb{Z}, we have:
f(z0)=g(f(z0))=fk+1(z0)=f(g(z0))=f(z0+1), f(z_0) = g(f(z_0)) = f^{k+1}(z_0) = f(g(z_0)) = f(z_0 + 1),
which leads to a contradiction since ff is injective. Hence f(Z)Zf(\mathbb{Z}) \subseteq \mathbb{Z}. Now, for each integer number zz we have:
f(z+1)=f(g(z))=fk+1(z)=g(f(z))=f(z)+1. f(z + 1) = f(g(z)) = f^{k+1}(z) = g(f(z)) = f(z) + 1.
Therefore, f(z)=z+tf(z) = z + t for some integer number tt and every integer number zz. Next, for every integer number zz we have:
z+kt=fk(z)=g(z)=z+1kt=1k=t=1. z + kt = f^k(z) = g(z) = z + 1 \Rightarrow kt = 1 \Rightarrow k = t = 1.
Therefore, ff must be equal to gg.

d) If fm(x)=x3f^m(x) = x^3 and fn(x)=x5f^n(x) = x^5 for some m,nNm, n \in \mathbb{N}, then x3n=fmn(x)=x5mx^{3n} = f^{mn}(x) = x^{5m}. Therefore, 3n=5m3^n = 5^m. But this equation does not have any solutions in natural numbers.

e) First, we prove a lemma.
Lemma 1. Let f:RRf: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} be a function and a>ba > b two integer numbers such that faf^a and fbf^b are both polynomials of degree 1. Then fabf^{a-b} is also a polynomial of degree 1.
Proof. fab(x)=fa((fb)1(x))f^{a-b}(x) = f^a \circ ((f^b)^{-1}(x)), and the inverse of every polynomial with degree 1 is again a polynomial of degree 1. \square

Now, assume that fm=Pf^m = P, fn=Qf^n = Q and (m,n)=d(m, n) = d for some m,n,dNm, n, d \in \mathbb{N}. Referring to the lemma and using Euclidean algorithm, fdf^d is a polynomial of degree 1 that generates both PP and QQ.

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