Function f is said to generate function g (and denote it by f→g), if g can be written as the composition of function f with itself for several times; i.e., natural number k exists for which f∘f∘⋯∘f=g (k times). We want to explore some properties of this relation. For example, it can easily be shown that if f→g and g→h, then f→h. (transitivity)
a) Show that two functions f=g:R→R exist for which f→g and g→f.
b) Prove that for each function f:R→R there are a finite number of functions g:R→R for which f→g and g→f.
c) Does a function g:R→R exist such that the only function that generates it is itself?
d) Does there exist a function that generates functions x3 and x5?
e) Prove that if there exists a function that generates two linear polynomials P and Q, then there exists a linear polynomial that generates both P and Q.
Solution
a) Let f(x)=⎩⎨⎧231xx=1x=2x=3x∈/{1,2,3}g(x)=⎩⎨⎧312xx=1x=2x=3x∈/{1,2,3} It is easy to check that g2=f and f2=g.
b) Suppose g is a function that f→g and g→f. It means that there are integers m and n such that fm=g and gn=f. So fmn=f and f generates at most mn−1 functions. Therefore, there are only a finite number of functions g.
c) Define g:R→R as follows: g(x)={x+1xx∈Zx∈/Z Let f be a real function such that f→g (fk=g). Note that g is bijective, and hence f is bijective too. If f(z0)∈/Z for some z0∈Z, we have: f(z0)=g(f(z0))=fk+1(z0)=f(g(z0))=f(z0+1), which leads to a contradiction since f is injective. Hence f(Z)⊆Z. Now, for each integer number z we have: f(z+1)=f(g(z))=fk+1(z)=g(f(z))=f(z)+1. Therefore, f(z)=z+t for some integer number t and every integer number z. Next, for every integer number z we have: z+kt=fk(z)=g(z)=z+1⇒kt=1⇒k=t=1. Therefore, f must be equal to g.
d) If fm(x)=x3 and fn(x)=x5 for some m,n∈N, then x3n=fmn(x)=x5m. Therefore, 3n=5m. But this equation does not have any solutions in natural numbers.
e) First, we prove a lemma. Lemma 1. Let f:R→R be a function and a>b two integer numbers such that fa and fb are both polynomials of degree 1. Then fa−b is also a polynomial of degree 1. Proof.fa−b(x)=fa∘((fb)−1(x)), and the inverse of every polynomial with degree 1 is again a polynomial of degree 1. □
Now, assume that fm=P, fn=Q and (m,n)=d for some m,n,d∈N. Referring to the lemma and using Euclidean algorithm, fd is a polynomial of degree 1 that generates both P and Q.
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