Prove that for any integer n≥2, there exists a unique finite sequence x0,x1,…,xn of real numbers which satisfies x0=xn=0 and xi+1−8xi3−4xi+3xi−1+1=0 for all i=1,2,…,n−1. Prove moreover that ∣xi∣≤21 for all i=1,2,…,n−1.
Solution
Let P1(X)=X, P2(X)=8X3+4X−1 and define by induction Pk+1(X) by Pk+1(X)=8Pk(X)3+4Pk(X)−3Pk−1(X)−1 for all integer k≥2. Clearly, Pk(X) is a polynomial of odd degree for all k≥1.
Let n≥2 be an integer and a a real zero of the polynomial Pn(X). The real a exists since the degree of Pn(X) is odd.
Consider the finite sequence x0,x1,…,xn of real numbers defined by x0=0, x1=a and xi+1=8xi3+4xi−3xi−1−1, for all 1≤i≤n−1. Clearly, x1=P1(a) and x2=P2(a). Assume that for 2≤k≤n−1, xk−1=Pk−1(a) and xk=Pk(a). We have
This proves that xk=Pk(a) for all 1≤k≤n and in particular xn=Pn(a)=0. This proves the existence of the sequence x0,x1,…,xn satisfying x0=xn=0 and xi+1−8xi3−4xi+3xi−1+1=0 for all i=1,2,…,n−1.
Conversely, if such a sequence x0,x1,…,xn exists then x1 is a real zero of the polynomial Pn(X). Therefore, proving the uniqueness of the sequence is equivalent to proving that Pn(X) has a unique real zero.
Let x,y be two real numbers. We have ∣P2(x)−P2(y)∣=4∣x−y∣2(x2+xy+y2)+1≥∣x−y∣=∣P1(x)−P1(y)∣, since x2+xy+y2≥0. Assume that ∣Pk(x)−Pk(y)∣≥∣Pk−1(x)−Pk−1(y)∣, for some integer k≥2. We have
Hence, the sequence (∣Pk(x)−Pk(y)∣)k≥1 is non-decreasing and if x=y then Pk(x)=Pk(y) for all k≥1. We deduce that Pn(X) has a unique real zero, and therefore the sequence x0,x1,…,xn is unique.
Let c=max{∣xi∣:1≤i≤n−1}. There exists k∈{1,2,…,n−1} such that c=∣xk∣. Because xk and xk3 have the same sign, it follows that