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Taiwan IMO Selection Camp, 2022

Algebra Difficulty 6.6 National Olympiad Prove it Taiwan

Given that the sequence of real numbers a1,a2,…a_1, a_2, \dots satisfies the following properties:
i. There exists a positive integer NN such that an=1a_n = 1 holds for all n≥Nn \ge N;
ii. For all n≥2n \ge 2,
an≤an−1+2−na2n. a_n \le a_{n-1} + 2^{-n} a_{2n}.
Prove that an>1−2−na_n > 1 - 2^{-n} holds for all positive integers nn.

Solution

For all kk, since there are only finitely many possible values for ana_n (n≥kn \ge k) to take, there exists nmax≥kn_{max} \ge k so that anmax≥ana_{n_{max}} \ge a_n for all n≥kn \ge k. Now, we can prove by induction that am≥(1−2−nmax−2−nmax−1−⋯−2−(m+1))anmaxa_m \ge (1 - 2^{-n_{max}} - 2^{-n_{max}-1} - \dots - 2^{-(m+1)})a_{n_{max}} for all k≤m≤nmaxk \le m \le n_{max}. This is trivial when m=nmaxm = n_{max}. Now suppose that it holds for m+1m + 1, then we have
am+1≤am+2−(m+1)a2(m+1)≤am+2−(m+1)anmax a_{m+1} \le a_m + 2^{-(m+1)} a_{2(m+1)} \le a_m + 2^{-(m+1)} a_{n_{max}}
since 2(m+1)>k2(m+1) > k. By the induction hypothesis, we get that
am≥am+1−2−(m+1)anmax≥(1−2−nmax−⋯−2−(m+1))anmax, a_m \ge a_{m+1} - 2^{-(m+1)} a_{n_{max}} \ge (1 - 2^{-n_{max}} - \dots - 2^{-(m+1)}) a_{n_{max}},
as desired. In particular, we can set m=km = k to get that
ak≥(1−2−nmax−⋯−2(k+1))anmax≥1−∑i=k+1∞2−i=1−2−k a_k \ge (1 - 2^{-n_{max}} - \dots - 2^{(k+1)}) a_{n_{max}} \ge 1 - \sum_{i=k+1}^{\infty} 2^{-i} = 1 - 2^{-k}
where the inequality follows from the fact that anmax≥aN≥1a_{n_{max}} \ge a_N \ge 1 and the fact that we are extending the finite sum to the infinite sum. □\square

We first reduce the problem to the case where an=an−1+2−na2na_n = a_{n-1} + 2^{-n}a_{2n} holds for all n≤Nn \le N. We will show this by showing that we can decrease a1,…,aN−1a_1, \dots, a_{N-1} to achieve this. Let k∈[N]k \in [N] be the largest such that ak<ak−1+2−ka2ka_k < a_{k-1} + 2^{-k}a_{2k}. Let MM be the difference between the two sides. Let ak′=ak,ak+1′=ak+1,…a'_k = a_k, a'_{k+1} = a_{k+1}, \dots and for each i=1,…,k−1i = 1, \dots, k-1 we
let ai′=ai−(1−2−i−1−⋯−2−k+1)M<aia'_i = a_i - (1 - 2^{-i-1} - \cdots - 2^{-k+1})M < a_i (in particular, ak−1′=ak−1−Ma'_{k-1} = a_{k-1} - M). Then
it is clear that ai′≥ai−Ma'_i \ge a_i - M, and so
an−1′=an−1−an+an′+2−nM≥an′+2−n(M−a2n)≥an′−2−na2n′. a'_{n-1} = a_{n-1} - a_n + a'_n + 2^{-n}M \ge a'_n + 2^{-n}(M - a_{2n}) \ge a'_n - 2^{-n}a'_{2n}.
for all n=1,…,k−1n = 1, \dots, k-1. It is also clear that ak−1′=ak′−2−ka2k′a'_{k-1} = a'_k - 2^{-k}a'_{2k} by definition. Therefore a1′,a2′,…a'_1, a'_2, \dots is a sequence not greater than a1,a2,…a_1, a_2, \dots term-wise that satisfies the inequality and have one additional equality holding. We can therefore iteratively decrease the sequence term-wise so that all the equalities hold for n<Nn < N. Then we can simply prove by induction that 1−2−k<ak≤11 - 2^{-k} < a_k \le 1. In particular, ak>1−2−ka_k > 1 - 2^{-k} holds for the original sequence. □\square

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement translated into English from zh; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.