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IMO 1J, Independent Study 1

Number theory Difficulty 8.4 Shortlist Prove it Taiwan

Given a prime number pp, a set is said to be p-good if the set contains exactly three elements a,b,ca, b, c and a+b≡c(modp)a + b \equiv c \pmod p.
Find all prime number pp such that {1,2,…,p−1}\{1, 2, \dots, p-1\} can be partitioned into several pp-good sets.

Solution

Find all prime number pp such that {1,2,…,p−1}\{1, 2, \dots, p-1\} can be partitioned into several pp-good sets.

Solution. Clearly, we must have p≡1(mod6)p \equiv 1 \pmod 6. To show that all such pp satisfies the condition, choose gg to be a primitive root modulo pp. Let x=g(p−1)/6x = g^{(p-1)/6}. Can verify that x3≡−1(modp)x^3 \equiv -1 \pmod p thus x2−x+1≡0(modp)x^2 - x + 1 \equiv 0 \pmod p. So gn,x2gn,xgng^n, x^2g^n, xg^n is pp-good for every nn. Pick n∈{0,1,2,…,p−16−1}∪{k,k+1,k+2,…,k+p−16−1}n \in \{0, 1, 2, \dots, \frac{p-1}{6} - 1\} \cup \{k, k+1, k+2, \dots, k+\frac{p-1}{6} - 1\} where k=p−12k = \frac{p-1}{2}, and we have the desired partition.

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement translated into English from zh; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.