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Algebra Difficulty 5.0 AIME Prove it North Macedonia

Let x+y+z=ax + y + z = a and 1x+1y+1z=1a\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} + \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{a}, for x,y,z,aRx, y, z, a \in \mathbb{R}. Prove that at least one of x,y,zx, y, z is equal to aa.

Solution

From 1x+1y+1z=1a\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} + \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{a} we have that x+y+z0x + y + z \neq 0 and from x+y+z=ax + y + z = a we have 1x+y+z=1a\frac{1}{x + y + z} = \frac{1}{a}.

Now from 1x+1y+1z=1a\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} + \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{a} and 1x+y+z=1a\frac{1}{x + y + z} = \frac{1}{a} we have 1x+1y+1z=1x+y+z\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} + \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{x + y + z}.

(xy+yz+zx)(x+y+z)=xyz, (xy + yz + zx)(x + y + z) = xyz,
x2y+xy2+xyz+xyz+y2z+yz2+zx2+xyz+z2x=xyz, x^2 y + x y^2 + x y z + x y z + y^2 z + y z^2 + z x^2 + x y z + z^2 x = x y z,
x2(y+z)+xy(y+z)+xz(y+z)=0, x^2(y + z) + x y(y + z) + x z(y + z) = 0,
(y+z)(x2+xy+yz+zx)=0, (y + z)(x^2 + x y + y z + z x) = 0,
(y+z)[x(x+y)+z(x+y)]=0, (y + z)[x(x + y) + z(x + y)] = 0,
(x+y)(y+z)(z+x)=0. (x + y)(y + z)(z + x) = 0.
Since x+y+z=ax + y + z = a we have x+y=azx + y = a - z, y+z=axy + z = a - x, z+x=ayz + x = a - y, and (az)(ax)(ay)=0(a - z)(a - x)(a - y) = 0. From (x+y)(y+z)(z+x)=0(x + y)(y + z)(z + x) = 0 we obtain that at least one of ax,ay,aza - x, a - y, a - z is equal to zero, i.e. x=ax = a or y=ay = a or z=az = a.

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.