Number theoryDifficulty 7.3National olympiad, round 2Prove itIran
{an}n≥0 and {bn}n≥0 are two sequences of positive integers that ai,bi∈{0,1,2,…,9}. There is an integer number M such that an,bn=0 for all n≥M and for each n≥0 (an⋯a1a0)2+999∣(bn⋯b1b0)2+999
(Note that (xnxn−1…x0)=10n×xn+⋯+10×x1+x0.)
prove that an=bn for n≥0.
Solution
Define An:=an…a1a0,Bn:=bn…b1b0,Kn:=An2+999Bn2+999. Claim 1.{Kn} is eventually constant or 10n∣An−12+999 for each positive integer n.
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*Proof.* For each n≥1 Bn2+999=Kn(An2+999),Bn−12+999=Kn−1(An−12+999)(1) From the Definition of An,Bn we know that An≡An−1(mod10n),Bn≡Bn−1(mod10n)(2) Then (1),(2) imply that Kn(An2+999)≡Kn−1(An−12+999)(mod10n).(3) If there exist N≥1 such that 10N∤AN−12+999, then there is a prime number p∈{2,5} such that pN∤AN−12+999. (2) infers that An≡AN−1(modpN) for each n≥N−1. So pN∤An2+999, meaning vp(An2+999)≤N, where vp(x) is the power of p in prime factorization of x. Define dn:=gcd(10n,An−12+999). If n≥N+1 then dn∤pn−N10n because vp(An2+999)≤N. According to (3) there is Kn≡Kn−1(moddn10n) so Kn≡Kn−1(modpn−N),(4) if n≥M is large enough such that pn−N>100 then for each i≥n−1 Ai≥10i⟹Ai2+999≥102i+999Bi<10i+1⟹Bi2+999<102i+2+999. Then Ki=Ai2+999Bi2+999<100<pn−N Hence (4) implies that Kn−1=Kn for large enough values of n so the claim is done. □
As discussed above there are two cases: 1. 10n∣An−12+999 for each n≥1. 2. {Kn} is eventually constant.
Claim 2. *By assumption of the first case, an=bn for all non-negative integers n.*
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*Proof.* Let n≥1 be any positive integer. An2+999∣Bn2+999⟹10n∣Bn−12+999 With above assertions and some calculation it's deduced that a0=b0,a1=b1. Note that An=10nan+An−1 so An2+999≡2×10nanAn−1+An−12+999(mod10n+1). Clearly, 2×10n∣10n+1∣An2+999 thus 2×10n∣An−12+999∣Bn−12+999(5) Which is stronger than assumed relation at beginning of the claim. The remaining part of proof is by using induction. Assume that am=bm for all 0≤m≤n−1. Which means An−1=Bn−1. Using (5) implies for all n≥1 An2+999⟹(10nan+An−1)2+999≡0(mod2×10n+1)≡0(mod2×10n+1). Which implies anAn−1+2×10nAn−12+999≡0(mod10).(6) Repeating above discussion with Bn2+999 infers that bnBn−1+2×10nBn−12+999≡0(mod10).(7) According to (6), (7) and the assertion of An−1=Bn−1 (induction) it's known that anAn−1≡bnAn−1(mod10). Moreover gcd(An,10)=1 since 10n+1∣An2+999. This implies an≡bn(mod10). Hence an=bn since 0≤an,bn≤9. Claim is proved. □
The only remaining part of solution is the case that {Kn} is eventually constant. Suppose that there exist positive integers K,T such that Kn=K for all n≥T. Suppose that n≥T then Bn2+999=K(An2+999)An=10nan+An−1Bn=10nbn+Bn−1⎭⎬⎫⟹10nbn2+2×bnBn−1=K(10nan2+2×anAn−1)⟹10n(bn2−Kan2)=2(KanAn−1−bnBn−1). So An−110n(bn2−Kan2)=2(Kan−bnAn−1Bn−1).(8) It's known that An,Bn≥10n for large enough integers n ⟹An2≃An2+999,Bn2≃Bn2+999. Which implies Bn2≃KAn2⟹n→∞limAnBn=K. Define Cn:=AnBn−K⟹n→∞limCn=0, according to (8) An−110n(bn2−Kan2)⟹An−110n(bn−Kan)(bn+Kan)⟹(bn−Kan)(An−110n(bn+Kan)+2K)=2(Kan−bnK)−2bnCn=2K(Kan−bn)−2bnCn=−2bnCn(9) Right Hand Side of (9) converges to 0 since limn→∞Cn=0 and 0≤bn≤9. Also the second parenthesis in (9) is always greater than 2K. So n→∞limbn−Kan=0 But bn−Kan has finite values which infers that there exist positive integer L≥M such that bn=Kan for all n≥L. Therefore according to (9) there must be −2bnCn=0 for all n≥L. Which implies Cn=0 since bn=0 for n≥M. Therefore Cn=0⟹Bn=KAn In addition with Bn2+999=K(An2+999) it's easy to see that 999K=999 which means K=1. So for large enough positive numbers n, Bn=An⟹bn⋯b1b0=an⋯a1a0 Therefore ak=bk for all k≥0 and we're done! ■
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