Problem: Let xi>1, for all i∈{1,2,3,…,2011}. Prove the inequality i=1∑2011xi+1−1xi2≥8044 where x2012=x1. When does equality hold?
Solution
Solution: Realize that (xi−2)2≥0⇔xi2≥4(xi−1). So we get: x2−1x12+x3−1x22+…+x1−1x20112≥4(x2−1x1−1+x3−1x2−1+…+x1−1x2011−1) By AM-GM: x2−1x1−1+x3−1x2−1+…+x1−1x2011−1≥2011⋅2011x2−1x1−1⋅x3−1x2−1⋅…⋅x1−1x2011−1=2011 Finally, we obtain that x2−1x12+x3−1x22+…+x1−1x20112≥8044. Equality holds when (xi−2)2=0,∀i=1,…,2011, or x1=x2=…=x2011=2.
All the denominators are greater than 0, so by Cauchy-Schwarz we have: x2−1x12+x3−1x22+…+x1−1x20112≥x1+x2+…+x2011−2011(x1+x2+…+x2011)2 It remains to prove that x1+x2+…+x2011−2011(x1+x2+…+x2011)2≥8044 or (i=1∑2011xi)2+4⋅20112≥4⋅2011⋅i=1∑2011xi which is obviously true by AM-GM for (∑i=12011xi)2 and 4⋅20112.
Equality holds when x1+x2+…+x2011=4022 and x2−1x1=x3−1x2=…=x1−1x2011 or xi2−xi=xi−1xi+1−xi−1,∀i=1,…,2011⇒∑i=12011xi2=∑i=12011xixi+2 where x2012=x1 and x2013=x2. This means that x1=x2=…=x2011. So equality holds when x1=x2=…=x2011=2 since x1+x2+…+x2011=4022.
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