Let u=x/z and v=y/z with x, y, z positive integers, and (x,y,z)=1. The statement is equivalent to saying that xn≡yn(modzn).
If z>1, assume that there is an odd prime divisor p∣z. Let r be the least positive integer such that xr≡yr(modp), so r∣n⇒n=rk. Let a=vp(n) and b=vp(xr−yr). By LTE, we have
vp(xn−yn)=vp((xr)k−(yr)k)=vp(xr−yr)+vp(k)≤b+vp(n)=a+b.
But vp(xn−yn)≥vp(zn)≤n⇒n≤a+b⇒pn≤pa⋯pb=npb. This cannot be true for infinitely many positive integers n.
If z has no odd prime divisor, then z is a power of 2. From this we have x, y are both odd.
If n is odd then
2n∣xn−yn=(x−y)(xn−1+xn−2y+⋯+xyn−2+yn−1).
But the second factor is odd since n is odd, we get 2n∣x−y for x=y. It is clear that there are only finitely many such n.
If n is even, let s=v2(x2−y2) and c=v2(n). By LTE we have
v2(xn−yn)=c+s−1⇒n≤c+s−1⇒n≤log2n+s−1.
Which does not hold for sufficiently large even values of n.