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IMO Shortlist, 2007

Number theory Difficulty 8.7 Shortlist Prove it IMO

For a prime pp and a positive integer nn, denote by νp(n)\nu_{p}(n) the exponent of pp in the prime factorization of n!n!. Given a positive integer dd and a finite set {p1,…,pk}\{p_{1}, \ldots, p_{k}\} of primes. Show that there are infinitely many positive integers nn such that d∣νpi(n)d \mid \nu_{p_{i}}(n) for all 1≤i≤k1 \leq i \leq k.

Solutions — 2

Solution 1

For arbitrary prime pp and positive integer nn, denote by ord⁡p(n)\operatorname{ord}_{p}(n) the exponent of pp in nn. Thus,
νp(n)=ord⁡p(n!)=∑i=1nord⁡p(i) \nu_{p}(n)=\operatorname{ord}_{p}(n!)=\sum_{i=1}^{n} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)
Lemma. Let pp be a prime number, qq be a positive integer, kk and rr be positive integers such that pk>rp^{k}>r. Then νp(qpk+r)=νp(qpk)+νp(r)\nu_{p}\left(q p^{k}+r\right)=\nu_{p}\left(q p^{k}\right)+\nu_{p}(r).
Proof. We claim that ord⁡p(qpk+i)=ord⁡p(i)\operatorname{ord}_{p}\left(q p^{k}+i\right)=\operatorname{ord}_{p}(i) for all 0<i<pk0<i<p^{k}. Actually, if d=ord⁡p(i)d=\operatorname{ord}_{p}(i) then d<kd<k, so qpk+iq p^{k}+i is divisible by pdp^{d}, but only the first term is divisible by pd+1p^{d+1}; hence the sum is not.
Using this claim, we obtain
νp(qpk+r)=∑i=1qpkord⁡p(i)+∑i=qpk+1qpk+rord⁡p(i)=∑i=1qpkord⁡p(i)+∑i=1rord⁡p(i)=νp(qpk)+νp(r) \nu_{p}\left(q p^{k}+r\right)=\sum_{i=1}^{q p^{k}} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)+\sum_{i=q p^{k}+1}^{q p^{k}+r} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)=\sum_{i=1}^{q p^{k}} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)+\sum_{i=1}^{r} \operatorname{ord}_{p}(i)=\nu_{p}\left(q p^{k}\right)+\nu_{p}(r)
For any integer aa, denote by aˉ\bar{a} its residue modulo dd. The addition of residues will also be performed modulo dd, i.e. aˉ+bˉ=a+b‾\bar{a}+\bar{b}=\overline{a+b}. For any positive integer nn, let f(n)=(f1(n),…,fk(n))f(n)=(f_{1}(n), \ldots, f_{k}(n)), where fi(n)=νpi(n)‾f_{i}(n)=\overline{\nu_{p_{i}}(n)}.
Define the sequence n1=1,nℓ+1=(p1p2…pk)nℓn_{1}=1, n_{\ell+1}=(p_{1} p_{2} \ldots p_{k})^{n_{\ell}}. We claim that
f(nℓ1+nℓ2+…+nℓm)=f(nℓ1)+f(nℓ2)+…+f(nℓm) f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}+n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)+f\left(n_{\ell_{2}}\right)+\ldots+f\left(n_{\ell_{m}}\right)
for any ℓ1<ℓ2<…<ℓm\ell_{1}<\ell_{2}<\ldots<\ell_{m}. (The addition of kk-tuples is componentwise.) The base case m=1m=1 is trivial.
Suppose that m>1m>1. By the construction of the sequence, pinℓ1p_{i}^{n_{\ell_{1}}} divides nℓ2+…+nℓmn_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}; clearly, pinℓ1>nℓ1p_{i}^{n_{\ell_{1}}}>n_{\ell_{1}} for all 1≤i≤k1 \leq i \leq k. Therefore the Lemma can be applied for p=pi,k=r=nℓ1p=p_{i}, k=r=n_{\ell_{1}} and qpk=nℓ2+…+nℓmq p^{k}=n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}} to obtain
fi(nℓ1+nℓ2+…+nℓm)=fi(nℓ1)+fi(nℓ2+…+nℓm) for all 1≤i≤k f_{i}\left(n_{\ell_{1}}+n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right)=f_{i}\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)+f_{i}\left(n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right) \quad \text{ for all } 1 \leq i \leq k
and hence
f(nℓ1+nℓ2+…+nℓm)=f(nℓ1)+f(nℓ2+…+nℓm)=f(nℓ1)+f(nℓ2)+…+f(nℓm) f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}+n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)+f\left(n_{\ell_{2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)+f\left(n_{\ell_{2}}\right)+\ldots+f\left(n_{\ell_{m}}\right)
by the induction hypothesis.
Now consider the values f(n1),f(n2),…f\left(n_{1}\right), f\left(n_{2}\right), \ldots There exist finitely many possible values of ff. Hence, there exists an infinite sequence of indices ℓ1<ℓ2<…\ell_{1}<\ell_{2}<\ldots such that f(nℓ1)=f(nℓ2)=…f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{2}}\right)=\ldots. and thus
f(nℓm+1+nℓm+2+…+nℓm+d)=f(nℓm+1)+…+f(nℓm+d)=d⋅f(nℓ1)=(0‾,…,0‾) f\left(n_{\ell_{m+1}}+n_{\ell_{m+2}}+\ldots+n_{\ell_{m+d}}\right)=f\left(n_{\ell_{m+1}}\right)+\ldots+f\left(n_{\ell_{m+d}}\right)=d \cdot f\left(n_{\ell_{1}}\right)=(\overline{0}, \ldots, \overline{0})
for all mm. We have found infinitely many suitable numbers.

Solution 2

We use the same Lemma and definition of the function ff.
Let S={f(n):n∈N}S=\{f(n): n \in \mathbb{N}\}. Obviously, set SS is finite. For every s∈Ss \in S choose the minimal nsn_{s} such that f(ns)=sf\left(n_{s}\right)=s. Denote N=max⁡s∈SnsN=\max_{s \in S} n_{s}. Moreover, let gg be an integer such that pig>Np_{i}^{g}>N for each i=1,2,…,ki=1,2, \ldots, k. Let P=(p1p2…pk)gP=(p_{1} p_{2} \ldots p_{k})^{g}.
We claim that
{f(n)∣n∈[mP,mP+N]}=S(1) \{f(n) \mid n \in[m P, m P+N]\}=S \tag{1}
for every positive integer mm. In particular, since (0‾,…,0‾)=f(1)∈S(\overline{0}, \ldots, \overline{0})=f(1) \in S, it follows that for an arbitrary mm there exists n∈[mP,mP+N]n \in[m P, m P+N] such that f(n)=(0‾,…,0‾)f(n)=(\overline{0}, \ldots, \overline{0}). So there are infinitely many suitable numbers.
To prove (1), let ai=fi(mP)a_{i}=f_{i}(m P). Consider all numbers of the form nm,s=mP+nsn_{m, s}=m P+n_{s} with s=(s1,…,sk)∈Ss=(s_{1}, \ldots, s_{k}) \in S (clearly, all nm,sn_{m, s} belong to [mP,mP+N][m P, m P+N] ). Since ns≤N<pign_{s} \leq N<p_{i}^{g} and pig∣mPp_{i}^{g} \mid m P, we can apply the Lemma for the values p=pi,r=ns,k=g,qpk=mPp=p_{i}, r=n_{s}, k=g, q p^{k}=m P to obtain
fi(nm,s)=fi(mP)+fi(ns)=ai+si; f_{i}\left(n_{m, s}\right)=f_{i}(m P)+f_{i}\left(n_{s}\right)=a_{i}+s_{i} ;
hence for distinct s,t∈Ss, t \in S we have f(nm,s)≠f(nm,t)f\left(n_{m, s}\right) \neq f\left(n_{m, t}\right).
Thus, the function ff attains at least ∣S∣|S| distinct values in [mP,mP+N][m P, m P+N]. Since all these values belong to S,fS, f should attain all possible values in [mP,mP+N][m P, m P+N].

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