Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / /18 of 22

Algebra Difficulty 7.2 National olympiad, round 2 Prove it South Africa

Show that there are infinitely many polynomials PP with real coefficients such that if xx, yy, and zz are real numbers such that x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2xyz = 1, then
P(x)2+P(y)2+P(z)2+2P(x)P(y)P(z)=1. P(x)^2 + P(y)^2 + P(z)^2 + 2P(x)P(y)P(z) = 1.

Solution

Let us call a triple (x,y,z)(x, y, z) of real numbers a *-triple if it satisfies
x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1. x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2xyz = 1.
Let us call a polynomial p(x)p(x) with real coefficients a *-polynomial if (x,y,z)(x, y, z) a *-triple implies (p(x),p(y),p(z))(p(x), p(y), p(z)) a *-triple.
We first investigate polynomials of degree at most 1. Hence, assume that p(x)=ax+bp(x) = ax + b (a,bRa, b \in \mathbb{R}), and suppose that p(x)p(x) is a *-polynomial. Since (x,x,1)(x, -x, 1) and (x,x,1)(x, x, -1) are *-triples for all xRx \in \mathbb{R}, we have
p(x)2+p(x)2+p(1)2+2p(x)p(x)p(1)=1 and p(x)2+p(x)2+p(1)2+2p(x)p(x)p(1)=1 p(x)^2 + p(-x)^2 + p(1)^2 + 2p(x)p(-x)p(1) = 1 \text{ and } p(x)^2 + p(x)^2 + p(-1)^2 + 2p(x)p(x)p(-1) = 1
for all xRx \in \mathbb{R}. This simplifies, respectively, to
2a2(1ab)x2+2b2(1+a+b)+(a+b)2=1(1) 2a^2(1 - a - b)x^2 + 2b^2(1 + a + b) + (a + b)^2 = 1 \quad (1)
and2a2(1a+b)x2+4ab(1a+b)x+2b2(1a+b)+(ba)2=1.(2) \text{and}\quad 2a^2(1 - a + b)x^2 + 4ab(1 - a + b)x + 2b^2(1 - a + b) + (b - a)^2 = 1. \quad (2)
Since these equations are valid for all xRx \in \mathbb{R}, we must have both the coefficients 2a2(1ab)2a^2(1-a-b) and 2a2(1a+b)2a^2(1-a+b) equal to 0. Therefore, a=0a=0, or 1ab=0=1a+b1-a-b=0=1-a+b.
If a=0a = 0, then, from (1), 2b2(1+b)+b2=12b^2(1+b) + b^2 = 1. It is clear that b=1b = -1 is a solution to this equation, and it follows readily that b=12b = \frac{1}{2} is the only other solution. It is straightforward to check that the constant polynomials p(x)=1p(x) = -1 and p(x)=12p(x) = \frac{1}{2} are indeed *-polynomials.
In case a0a \neq 0, then 1ab=0=1a+b1 - a - b = 0 = 1 - a + b, so that b=0b = 0. From (1), the coefficient 2a2(1ab)=2a2(1a)=02a^2(1 - a - b) = 2a^2(1 - a) = 0, giving a=1a = 1. From this we get the trivial *-polynomial p(x)=xp(x) = x.

Our next observation is that when p(x)p(x) is a *-polynomial, then p(p(x))=p2(x)p(p(x)) = p^2(x) is also a *-polynomial — and, in fact, it follows by an easy induction that pn(x)p^n(x) are *-polynomials for all n1n \ge 1, where pn(x)p^n(x) means the composition of p(x)p(x) with itself, nn times. So if we can find a *-polynomial p(x)p(x) such that infinitely many polynomials in the sequence p(x),p2(x),p3(x),p(x), p^2(x), p^3(x), \dots are different from each other, the problem will be solved. Unfortunately, none of the three -polynomials we have found so far has this property. We therefore look for a possible second degree -polynomial p(x)=ax2+bx+cp(x) = ax^2 + bx + c, a,b,cRa, b, c \in \mathbb{R}, a0a \neq 0. In this case, assuming that p(x)p(x) is a -polynomial, and again using the -triples (x,x,1)(x, -x, 1) and (x,x,1)(x, x, -1) (for all xRx \in \mathbb{R}), we obtain, after simplification:
2a2(1+a+b+c)x4+2[2ac+b2+(2acb2)(a+b+c)]x2+2c2(1+a+b+c)+(a+b+c)2=1(3) 2a^2(1 + a + b + c)x^4 + 2[2ac + b^2 + (2ac - b^2)(a + b + c)]x^2 + 2c^2(1 + a + b + c) + (a + b + c)^2 = 1 \quad (3)
and
2a2(1+ab+c)x4+4ab(1+ab+c)x3+2(2ac+b2)(1+ab+c)x2+4bc(1+ab+c)x+2c2(1+ab+c)+(ab+c)2=1(4) 2a^2(1 + a - b + c)x^4 + 4ab(1 + a - b + c)x^3 + 2(2ac + b^2)(1 + a - b + c)x^2 + 4bc(1 + a - b + c)x + 2c^2(1 + a - b + c) + (a - b + c)^2 = 1 \quad (4)
Since the coefficients of x4x^4 in (3) and (4) must be 0, and we have a0a \neq 0, we must have a+b+c=1=ab+ca + b + c = -1 = a - b + c, so that b=0b = 0. Thus a+c=1a + c = -1 and we conclude that
p(x)=ax2+c=(1c)x2+c p(x) = ax^2 + c = (-1-c)x^2 + c
for some cRc \in \mathbb{R}. But p(x)p(x) is assumed to be a *-polynomial, and since (x,1x2,0)(x, \sqrt{1-x^2}, 0) are *-triples for all 1x1-1 \le x \le 1, we get that
((1c)x2+c)2+((1c)(1x2)+c)2+c2+2((1c)x2+c)((1c)(1x2)+c)c=1, ((-1-c)x^2+c)^2 + ((-1-c)(1-x^2)+c)^2 + c^2 + 2((-1-c)x^2+c)((-1-c)(1-x^2)+c)c = 1,
which simplifies to
2(1+c)2(1c)x42(1+c)2(1c)x2+1=1. 2(1+c)^2(1-c)x^4 - 2(1+c)^2(1-c)x^2 + 1 = 1.
As before, the coefficients of x4x^4 and x2x^2 must be 0, and we see that c{1,1}c \in \{-1, 1\}. The case c=1c = -1 gives p(x)=1p(x) = -1, which we have already dealt with. Hence, the only possible candidate at this stage for a second degree *-polynomial, is p(x)=2x2+1p(x) = -2x^2 + 1. We now verify that p(x)=2x2+1p(x) = -2x^2 + 1 is indeed a *-polynomial:
Let (x,y,z)(x, y, z) be an arbitrary *-triple. Then
(2x2+1)2+(2y2+1)2+(2z2+1)2+2(2x2+1)(2y2+1)(2z2+1)=16x2y2z2+4(x4+y4+z4)+8(x2y2+y2z2+z2x2)8(x2+y2+z2)+5=4(1(x2+y2+z2))2+4(x2+y2+z2)28(x2+y2+z2)+5=1, \begin{aligned} & (-2x^2 + 1)^2 + (-2y^2 + 1)^2 + (-2z^2 + 1)^2 + 2(-2x^2 + 1)(-2y^2 + 1)(-2z^2 + 1) \\ &= -16x^2y^2z^2 + 4(x^4 + y^4 + z^4) + 8(x^2y^2 + y^2z^2 + z^2x^2) - 8(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) + 5 \\ &= -4(1 - (x^2 + y^2 + z^2))^2 + 4(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2 - 8(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) + 5 \\ &= 1, \end{aligned}
and we conclude that p(x)=2x2+1p(x) = -2x^2 + 1 is indeed a *-polynomial.
This solves the problem, since we now have an infinite sequence p(x),p2(x),p3(x),p(x), p^2(x), p^3(x), \dots of *-polynomials, and they are all different, since deg(pn(x))=2n\deg(p^n(x)) = 2^n for each n1n \ge 1, a fact that can easily be verified by induction.

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,000 problems in a working order, from AMC 10 level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.