AlgebraDifficulty 7.2National olympiad, round 2Prove itSouth Africa
Show that there are infinitely many polynomials P with real coefficients such that if x, y, and z are real numbers such that x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1, then P(x)2+P(y)2+P(z)2+2P(x)P(y)P(z)=1.
Solution
Let us call a triple (x,y,z) of real numbers a *-triple if it satisfies x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1. Let us call a polynomial p(x) with real coefficients a *-polynomial if (x,y,z) a *-triple implies (p(x),p(y),p(z)) a *-triple. We first investigate polynomials of degree at most 1. Hence, assume that p(x)=ax+b (a,b∈R), and suppose that p(x) is a *-polynomial. Since (x,−x,1) and (x,x,−1) are *-triples for all x∈R, we have p(x)2+p(−x)2+p(1)2+2p(x)p(−x)p(1)=1 and p(x)2+p(x)2+p(−1)2+2p(x)p(x)p(−1)=1 for all x∈R. This simplifies, respectively, to 2a2(1−a−b)x2+2b2(1+a+b)+(a+b)2=1(1) and2a2(1−a+b)x2+4ab(1−a+b)x+2b2(1−a+b)+(b−a)2=1.(2) Since these equations are valid for all x∈R, we must have both the coefficients 2a2(1−a−b) and 2a2(1−a+b) equal to 0. Therefore, a=0, or 1−a−b=0=1−a+b. If a=0, then, from (1), 2b2(1+b)+b2=1. It is clear that b=−1 is a solution to this equation, and it follows readily that b=21 is the only other solution. It is straightforward to check that the constant polynomials p(x)=−1 and p(x)=21 are indeed *-polynomials. In case a=0, then 1−a−b=0=1−a+b, so that b=0. From (1), the coefficient 2a2(1−a−b)=2a2(1−a)=0, giving a=1. From this we get the trivial *-polynomial p(x)=x.
Our next observation is that when p(x) is a *-polynomial, then p(p(x))=p2(x) is also a *-polynomial — and, in fact, it follows by an easy induction that pn(x) are *-polynomials for all n≥1, where pn(x) means the composition of p(x) with itself, n times. So if we can find a *-polynomial p(x) such that infinitely many polynomials in the sequence p(x),p2(x),p3(x),… are different from each other, the problem will be solved. Unfortunately, none of the three -polynomials we have found so far has this property. We therefore look for a possible second degree -polynomial p(x)=ax2+bx+c, a,b,c∈R, a=0. In this case, assuming that p(x) is a -polynomial, and again using the -triples (x,−x,1) and (x,x,−1) (for all x∈R), we obtain, after simplification: 2a2(1+a+b+c)x4+2[2ac+b2+(2ac−b2)(a+b+c)]x2+2c2(1+a+b+c)+(a+b+c)2=1(3) and 2a2(1+a−b+c)x4+4ab(1+a−b+c)x3+2(2ac+b2)(1+a−b+c)x2+4bc(1+a−b+c)x+2c2(1+a−b+c)+(a−b+c)2=1(4) Since the coefficients of x4 in (3) and (4) must be 0, and we have a=0, we must have a+b+c=−1=a−b+c, so that b=0. Thus a+c=−1 and we conclude that p(x)=ax2+c=(−1−c)x2+c for some c∈R. But p(x) is assumed to be a *-polynomial, and since (x,1−x2,0) are *-triples for all −1≤x≤1, we get that ((−1−c)x2+c)2+((−1−c)(1−x2)+c)2+c2+2((−1−c)x2+c)((−1−c)(1−x2)+c)c=1, which simplifies to 2(1+c)2(1−c)x4−2(1+c)2(1−c)x2+1=1. As before, the coefficients of x4 and x2 must be 0, and we see that c∈{−1,1}. The case c=−1 gives p(x)=−1, which we have already dealt with. Hence, the only possible candidate at this stage for a second degree *-polynomial, is p(x)=−2x2+1. We now verify that p(x)=−2x2+1 is indeed a *-polynomial: Let (x,y,z) be an arbitrary *-triple. Then (−2x2+1)2+(−2y2+1)2+(−2z2+1)2+2(−2x2+1)(−2y2+1)(−2z2+1)=−16x2y2z2+4(x4+y4+z4)+8(x2y2+y2z2+z2x2)−8(x2+y2+z2)+5=−4(1−(x2+y2+z2))2+4(x2+y2+z2)2−8(x2+y2+z2)+5=1, and we conclude that p(x)=−2x2+1 is indeed a *-polynomial. This solves the problem, since we now have an infinite sequence p(x),p2(x),p3(x),… of *-polynomials, and they are all different, since deg(pn(x))=2n for each n≥1, a fact that can easily be verified by induction.
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