Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / Czech Republic competition problems /2 of 3

Czech Republic competition problems

Number theory Difficulty 6.2 National Olympiad Prove it Czech Republic

We say that a positive integer nn is fantastic, if there exist positive rational numbers aa and bb such that

n=a+1a+b+1b. n = a + \frac{1}{a} + b + \frac{1}{b}.

a. Prove that there exist infinitely many prime numbers pp such that no multiple of pp is fantastic.
b. Prove that there exist infinitely many prime numbers pp such that some multiple of pp is fantastic.

Solution

Note that
r(a,b):=a+1a+b+1b=(a+b)(ab+1)ab. r(a,b) := a + \frac{1}{a} + b + \frac{1}{b} = \frac{(a+b)(ab+1)}{ab}.
We put a=tua = \frac{t}{u} and b=vwb = \frac{v}{w}, where t,u,vt, u, v and ww are positive integers such that both tt and uu and also vv and ww are coprime. Then we get r(a,b)=(tv+uw)(tw+uv)tuvwr(a,b) = \frac{(tv+uw)(tw+uv)}{tuvw}, whence the Diophantine equation

tu(v2+w2)+vw(t2+u2)=kptuvw(6) tu(v^2 + w^2) + vw(t^2 + u^2) = kptuvw \quad (6)

has to be investigated. Now gcd⁡(tu,t2+u2)=1\gcd(tu, t^2 + u^2) = 1. Therefore, (6) implies tu∣vwtu \mid vw. As we get similarly vw∣tuvw \mid tu, too, we infer

tu=vw(7) tu = vw \quad (7)

and (6) becomes

(v2+t2)(v2+u2)v2=t2+u2+v2+w2=kptu. \frac{(v^2 + t^2)(v^2 + u^2)}{v^2} = t^2 + u^2 + v^2 + w^2 = kptu.

Therefore, pp has to divide either v2+t2v^2 + t^2 or v2+u2v^2 + u^2. In the case p≡−1(mod4)p \equiv -1 \pmod 4, i.e. when −1-1 is a quadratic non-residue mod pp, this means that pp divides vv (and tt or uu). But since the same argument is valid for ww instead of vv, we have p∣v,wp \mid v, w contradicting the coprimality of vv and ww. Thus the infinitely many primes with p≡−1(mod4)p \equiv -1 \pmod 4 have no fantastic multiple and part (a) is solved.

For part (b) we choose v=1v = 1 and substitute w=tuw = tu. Thus we are looking for integers tt and uu such that

1+t2+u2+t2u2=kptu. 1 + t^2 + u^2 + t^2u^2 = kptu.

Here we choose t=F2l+1t = F_{2l+1}, u=F2l−1u = F_{2l-1} and use the identity 1+F2l+12=F2l+3F2l−11 + F_{2l+1}^2 = F_{2l+3}F_{2l-1} to obtain
(1+t2)(1+u2)=(1+F2l+12)(1+F2l−12)=F2l+3F2l−1F2l+1F2l−3=kpF2l+1F2l−1, (1+t^2)(1+u^2) = (1+F_{2l+1}^2)(1+F_{2l-1}^2) = F_{2l+3}F_{2l-1}F_{2l+1}F_{2l-3} = k p F_{2l+1} F_{2l-1},
i.e. F2l+3F2l−3=kpF_{2l+3}F_{2l-3} = kp. Therefore every prime factor of the Fibonacci number F2l+3F_{2l+3} has a fantastic multiple.

In view of the well-known formula gcd(Fa,Fb)=Fgcd(a,b)\text{gcd}(F_a, F_b) = F_{\text{gcd}(a,b)} it is clear that FaF_a and FbF_b are relatively prime, if aa and bb are different prime numbers. Hence we know that infinitely many prime numbers have a fantastic multiple, which solves part (b).

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,604 problems in a working order, from Junior Challenge level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.