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Number theory Difficulty 6.2 National olympiad Prove it Czech Republic

We say that a positive integer nn is fantastic, if there exist positive rational numbers aa and bb such that

n=a+1a+b+1b. n = a + \frac{1}{a} + b + \frac{1}{b}.

a. Prove that there exist infinitely many prime numbers pp such that no multiple of pp is fantastic.
b. Prove that there exist infinitely many prime numbers pp such that some multiple of pp is fantastic.

Solution

Note that
r(a,b):=a+1a+b+1b=(a+b)(ab+1)ab. r(a,b) := a + \frac{1}{a} + b + \frac{1}{b} = \frac{(a+b)(ab+1)}{ab}.
We put a=tua = \frac{t}{u} and b=vwb = \frac{v}{w}, where t,u,vt, u, v and ww are positive integers such that both tt and uu and also vv and ww are coprime. Then we get r(a,b)=(tv+uw)(tw+uv)tuvwr(a,b) = \frac{(tv+uw)(tw+uv)}{tuvw}, whence the Diophantine equation

tu(v2+w2)+vw(t2+u2)=kptuvw(6) tu(v^2 + w^2) + vw(t^2 + u^2) = kptuvw \quad (6)

has to be investigated. Now gcd(tu,t2+u2)=1\gcd(tu, t^2 + u^2) = 1. Therefore, (6) implies tuvwtu \mid vw. As we get similarly vwtuvw \mid tu, too, we infer

tu=vw(7) tu = vw \quad (7)

and (6) becomes

(v2+t2)(v2+u2)v2=t2+u2+v2+w2=kptu. \frac{(v^2 + t^2)(v^2 + u^2)}{v^2} = t^2 + u^2 + v^2 + w^2 = kptu.

Therefore, pp has to divide either v2+t2v^2 + t^2 or v2+u2v^2 + u^2. In the case p1(mod4)p \equiv -1 \pmod 4, i.e. when 1-1 is a quadratic non-residue mod pp, this means that pp divides vv (and tt or uu). But since the same argument is valid for ww instead of vv, we have pv,wp \mid v, w contradicting the coprimality of vv and ww. Thus the infinitely many primes with p1(mod4)p \equiv -1 \pmod 4 have no fantastic multiple and part (a) is solved.

For part (b) we choose v=1v = 1 and substitute w=tuw = tu. Thus we are looking for integers tt and uu such that

1+t2+u2+t2u2=kptu. 1 + t^2 + u^2 + t^2u^2 = kptu.

Here we choose t=F2l+1t = F_{2l+1}, u=F2l1u = F_{2l-1} and use the identity 1+F2l+12=F2l+3F2l11 + F_{2l+1}^2 = F_{2l+3}F_{2l-1} to obtain
(1+t2)(1+u2)=(1+F2l+12)(1+F2l12)=F2l+3F2l1F2l+1F2l3=kpF2l+1F2l1, (1+t^2)(1+u^2) = (1+F_{2l+1}^2)(1+F_{2l-1}^2) = F_{2l+3}F_{2l-1}F_{2l+1}F_{2l-3} = k p F_{2l+1} F_{2l-1},
i.e. F2l+3F2l3=kpF_{2l+3}F_{2l-3} = kp. Therefore every prime factor of the Fibonacci number F2l+3F_{2l+3} has a fantastic multiple.

In view of the well-known formula gcd(Fa,Fb)=Fgcd(a,b)\text{gcd}(F_a, F_b) = F_{\text{gcd}(a,b)} it is clear that FaF_a and FbF_b are relatively prime, if aa and bb are different prime numbers. Hence we know that infinitely many prime numbers have a fantastic multiple, which solves part (b).

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.